NBCE PT Boards- Sample Questions

Deep heat modalities are contraindicated for

a. Scar tissue

b. Chronic inflammation

c. Infection

d. Bone fractures

C

Paraffin provides which type of heat?

a. Dry superficial

b. Moist superficial

c. Dry deep

d. Moist deep

B

What is an appropriate safety precaution for application of MWD?

a. Applicator should be 12

b. Perspiration should be promoted to enhance treatment

c. Remove contact lenses during treatment around head

d. Intensity settings should be based on the pt.

A

What form of cryotherapy does not use conduction?

a. Cold pack

b. Ice massage

c. Cold baths

d. Vapocoolant spray

C

Cryotherapy reduces muscle spasm by inhibiting?

a. Scar tissue formation

b. Muscle spindle activity

c. Cellular metabolism

d. Acetylcholine production

B

Which of these is typically the last sensation felt with cryotherapy application?

a. Intense cold

b. Burning

c. Aching

d. Numbness

D

Modulation of electrical current helps prevent_____of muscle tissue.

a. Adaptation

b. Fatigue

c. Recruitment

d. Excitation

A

Which type of electrotherapy is most likely to slow atrophy of a denervated muscle?

a. TENS

b. Microcurrent

c. Interferential

d. Low voltage galvanic

D

In general, the smaller the electrode, the_____.

a. Stronger the motor response

b. Weaker the current

c. Stronger the stimulus

d. Weaker the nociceptive response

C

Which of these is most appropriately treated with high voltage pulsed stimulation?

a. UMNL

b. Edema

c. Fungal infection

d. Thrombophlebitis

B

Which type of massage is used for the treatment of adhesive capsulitis?

a. Effleurage

b. Tapotement

c. Transverse friction

d. Petrissage

C

A contraindication for continuous traction is?

a. IVF encroachment

b. Osteoporosis

c. Scoliosis

d. Spondylolisthesis

B

Which type of massage is most likely to provide muscle relaxation, pain reduction, and improved

blood flow to musculature?

a. Effleurage

b. Friction massage

c. Tapotement

d. Roulement

C

A cane should be used in the hand contralateral to the affected hip in order to______.

a. Aid in extension of the affected leg

b. Reduce abduction force of the affected side

c. Reduce abduction force of the unaffected side

d. Prevent posterior lurch

B

Which class laser device poses the greatest hazard for eye and skin damage with inappropriate use?

a. II

b. IIIA

c. IIIb

d. IV

D

Which of these is not a physiological effect of cold lasers?

a. Muscle contraction

b. Vasodilation

c. Increased macrophage activity

d. Increased collagen production

A

17.Which of these muscles controls lateral pelvic tilt during the swinging of the opposite leg?

a. Glut max

b. piriformis

c. Quadriceps

d. Hamstrings

A

A posterior lurch of the trunk to initiate the swing phase is due to weakness of the hip____?

a. Adductors

b. Abductors

c. Flexors

d. Extensors

C

Scapular winging is the result of a/an______?

a. Weak serratus anterior

b. Overactive rhomboid

c. Overactive trapezius

d. Weak latissimus dorsi

A

Which muscles are hypertonic when the patient is placed in the modified Thomas position and the

hip remains in 15 degrees of flexion with the knee to only 70 degrees?

a. Glut max and rectus femoris

b. Glut max and biceps femoris

c. Iliopsoas and rectus femoris

d. Iliopsoas and biceps femoris

C

An exercise program designed to increase muscle endurance includes____repitition with______

resistance.

a. Low; low to moderate

b. Low; high

c. High; low to moderate

d. High; high

C

The phosphagen system provides ATP for______activities.

a. Short term low intensity

b. Short term high intensity

c. Long term low intensity

d. Long term high intensity

B

23.A major catabolic effect of cortisol is converting amino acids to________.

a. Lipids

b. Carbohydrates

c. Fat

d. Protein

A

What is the primary source of energy utilized during aerobic endurance exercise?

a. Protein

b. Glucose

c. Lipid

d. Glycogen

C

Endurance training and performance is improved when following a diet high in_______.

a. Omega 3

b. Carbohydrates

c. Calories

d. Proteins

B

Which of these factors contributes to improvements in athletic performance and aerobic power from

overload training specific muscle groups?

a. Decrease in overall mitochondrial concentration

b. Increased microcirculation

c. Accumulation of blood lactate

d. Using a generalized, sub

B

Eccentric muscle contractions require the muscle to________.

a. Contract without resistance

b. Lengthen against resistance

c. Shorten against resistance

d. Contract with resistance

B

In which circumstance would plyometric training be the most benefit?

a. Training of a professional football player

b. Increasing balance of a geriatric patient

c. Following hip replacement surgery

d. Increasing proprioceptive input to an unstable joint

A

Which commonly-used strength program relies on multi-set exercises targeting a variety of muscle groups with minimal resistance?

a. Progressive resistance exercises

b. Circuit training

c. Isometric resistive training

d. Compound training

B

Which of these is the neurophysiological principle of the contract- relax principle technique for muscle stretching?

a. Crossed extensor reflex

b. Reciprocal inhibition

c. Monosynaptic stretch reflex

d. Polysynaptic innervations

B

Neuromuscular coordination is primarily programmed in the_________ tract of the nervous system.

a. Sympathetic

b. Extrapyramidal

c. Spinothalamic

d. Parasympathetic

B

In order to maintain proprioceptive input and prevent adhesion formation, the patient should

begin______ exercises during the subacute phase of a grade II ankle sprain.

a. Isometric high

b. Passive range of motion

c. Weight

d. Plyometric high

B

A biomechanical ankle platform system is designed to elicit which of these effects?

a. Limited range of motion

b. Decreased swelling

c. Improved sensory cues and balance

d. Decreased sensory feedback

C

The side bridge posture is used to activate which muscle?

a. Multifidus

b. Transverse abdominis

c. Rectus abdominis

d. Quadratus lumborum

D

For lumbar rehabilitation, an optimal pattern is one in which the muscles increase in_________.

a. Endurance

b. Strength

c. Flexibility

d. Size

A

Biceps curls used for rehabilitation of the elbow are best described as a/an______exercise.

a. Isokinetic

b. Open chain

c. Closed chain

d. Isometric

B

Which muscles are activated to maintain posterior pelvic tilt?

a. Lower abdominals

b. Quadrates lumborum

c. Quadriceps

d. Hip flexors

A

Which muscles is not emphasized in early rehabilitation of shoulder impingement syndrome due to its upward force on the humerus?

a. Supraspinatus

b. Infraspinatus

c. Deltoid

d. Serratus anterior

A

Which of these muscles is most important in the management of degenerative osteoarthritis?

a. Gemellus

b. Hamstrings

c. Gluteus maximus

d. Quadriceps

C

During the acute phase of shoulder impingement, what type of exercises are indicated?

a. Isometric

b. Isotonic

c. Plyometric

d. Variable resistance

A

Which of these is most appropriate for rehabilitation of diastasis recti?

a. Anchored full sit ups

b. Modified squats

c. Bilateral straight leg raises

d. Head lift with pelvic tilt

D

What passive modalities are most appropriate during the initial treatment of this patient? (select 3)

(40 year old man with lateral elbow pain; 4/10 while playing tennis and using screw driver)

a. Cryotherapy

b. High voltage pulsed stim

c. Interferential current

d. MWD

e. Hydrocollator packs

f. Continuous US

g. IR lamp

h. UV lamp

A

B

C

Which of these are the most appropriate recommendations during the acute phase? (select 3)

a. Stretching the wrist into flexion

b. Stretching the wrist into extension

c. Eliminating pronation

d. Eliminating supination

e. Using cock

f. Using counter

g. Beginning plyometric exercises

h. Using a sling for two weeks

A

F

H

Following resolution of the symptoms, which of these activities are most likely to benefit this

patient? (select 3)

a. Wrist curls with the palms down

b. Wrist curls with the palms up

c. Push up with plus

d. Splint elbow in maximal flexion

e. Biceps curls with supination

f. High-velocity exercises

g. Codman exercises

h. Resisted seated rowing

A

C

E

Knee extension against resistance on a seated pulley machine is an example of what type

of exercise (Kisner pg 186)

a. Isometric

b. Isokinetic

c. Closed- chain kinetic

d. Open- chain kinetic

D

Which of these is not an appropriate exercise for lumbar facet syndrome (Kisner pg 445)

a. Abdominal curls

b. Knees

c. Ball superman

d. Supine planks

C

Which of these is an absolute contraindication to cervical traction (Starkey pg 330)

a. Chronic myofascitis

b. Vertebral artery syndrome

c. Acute muscle spasm

d. Ankylosing spondylitis

B

What modality can produce therapeutic thermal, chemical, and mechanical actions

(Starkey 168)

a. Microwave diathermy

b. Galvanism

c. Ultrasound

d. Fluidotherapy

C

Which of these is safe to use over a joint with a metallic implant (Starkey pg 264)

a. High voltage therapy

b. Continuous ultrasound

c. Microwave diathermy

d. Shortwave diathermy

A

Denervated muscle is most effectively stimulated by which of these currents (Starkey pg

253)

a. Square wave alternating

b. Low- voltage direct

c. Indirect biphasic pulsed

d. Interferential

B

Which exercise should be avoided during rehabilitation of the supraspinatus in order to

prevent impingement of suprahumeral tissues (Kisner pg 607)

a. Full can

b. Empty can

c. Ball squeezing

d. Forward punching

B

Treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome should include which of these (Kisner pg 401)

a. Resisted wrist extension

b. Military press

c. Median nerve glides

d. Pendulum exercises

C

Which of these is most appropriate for stretching the iliopsoas and rectus femoris

a. Forward lunge

b. Sitting toe touch

c. Knee to chest

d. Posterior pelvic tilt

A