CREDIT2-25 siders ark surgery

questions fra 25 siders fil.,

Peridontal tissues

cementum, periodontal ligament, periodontal surface of alveolar bone, gingiva.

Types of sets of teeth of dogs

diphyodont, brachyodont, heterodont and anelodont.

First mandibular molars on the left side, according to the triad system?

309.

Changes in size, number and shape of teeth is a result of?

Anomalic differences of dental lamina and “tooth to be”

Contact stomatitis is

a. Stomatitis following contact with inappropriate feeding

In which teeth palatal periodontal sacs/pockets have tendency to make oronasal fistula?

a. Incisors b. Canines c. Premolars d. Molars.

incisors

What time interval from when the trauma happened is recommended for vital pulpotomy in patients less than 18 months?

a. Up to 12h b. Up to 24h c. Up to 36h d. Up to 48h.

up to 48h

Which one of the odontogenic tumors has infiltrative growth?

a. Enameloblastic fibroma b. Epithelial odontogenic supernatant c. Enameloblastoma d. Odontome.

Enameloblastoma

Apically displaced gingival lobe is used for

a. Small amount of gingiva b. Gingival hyperplasia c. infraosseal periodontal pockets.

infraosseal periodontal pockets.

Area of dentistry covering dental extraction:

a. Prosthodontics b. Exodontics c. Endodontics.

exodontics

What does the term furcation mean (bifurcation, trifurcation)?

Branching. E.g. 2 branches, 3 branches.

The outbreak of mandibular salivary gland is on/the opening:

a. Lateral side b. Premolars on the maxilla c. Frenulum linguae d. Close to tonsils.

frenulum linguae

Ranula is ….

sublingual pocket of saliva, due to rupture of the mandibular salivary gland duct in frenulum.

Enterectomy is…..

Removal of a piece of the intestine.

Obstruction of the esophagus on 4th PAO diagnosis

a. After birth b. After starting with solid food c. After increased effort.

after starting with solid food

Diagnosis of foreign body in the cervical part of the esophagus

Palpation - Radiography - Contrast study - Endoscopy.

What is gastropexy and describe where and how to perform….

Gastropexy is to make an attachment between the stomach muscular layer to another part of the abdomen to prevent movement

• Circumcostal - make a flap from pylorus around the 11th or 12th rib and attach to gastric margin.

• Muscular flap from stomach and attach it to the abdominal muscles.

What is pyloromyotomy…..

To make an incision in the muscular layer but not perforating into the mucosal layer - indication is to release narrowing.

Hernia hiatalis

when part of the stomach walls gets into thorax.

Name 3 reasons why there can be problem of food passage through the pylorus

Obstruction, foreign body, pyloric stenosis.

Ulcers in dog bleedings and ulcerations of dogs stomach are often associated with

a.Increased amount of prostaglandin formation

b. Reduced prostaglandins

Reduced prostaglandins (after Helicobacter infection?).

List the most common causes of prolonged healing of the incision of esophagus after its incision and suture.

• Lack of serosa.

• Segmental blood supply

• Constant motion of swallowing and respiration

• Tension of surgical site

When turning the 2 lesion, the movement of the pylorus is when the volvulus of the stomach occurs, the pylorus moves like this:

a. Ventral, Towards the left side of abdomen wall and upwards b. Dorsally, towards the right side of the abdominal cavity and downward c. Ventral to the right side of the abdominal cavity and downward.

Dorsally, towards the right side of the abdominal cavity and downward

Doses of isotonic crystaloids in dilatation and stomach volvulus

a. Max 30 ml/kg/24h b. Max 80 ml/kg/24h c. Max 80 ml/kg/h.

max. 80ml/kg/h

Hypertonic solution NaCl is

7%

How can we perform a decompression of the stomach GDV

gastric tube, transcutaneous, gastrostomy.

The most common heart disorder in GDV in the dog is.. and how to treat it

Tachycardia - Arrhythmia - Decreased BP and output - Myocardial ischemia.

Location of foreign object in esophagus

Apertura thoracis cranialis, base of heart, and at diaphragma.

What anaesthesia SHOULDN’T we use in volvulus

Thiopental - Atropine - Xylazine - Nitrous oxide.

Which stitches to USE to close organs of GIT

Absorbable material

• Single layer, inverting, everting, simple continuous - Cushing, Connell, Schmieden, Lambert….

Zepp's indications - Lateral wall resection of ear

lateral wall resection of ear - Otitis externa has not responded favourably to medical treatment and irreversible hyperplasia has NOT occurred.

Indication of Total Ear Canal Ablation

Chronic proliferative otitis externa and obstruction of horizontal and vertical ear canal.

List the most 4 common surgical diseases of stomach

Gastrotomy - Gastropexy - Gastrostomy - Gastroectomy.

Methods of applying the stomach wall edges we distinguish these methods of joining.

ledecky said that it is the same ones as for intestines, when we asked since we were not sure if he hasn't done a mistake and asked for stomach instead of intestine.

What 3 layers do we suture in stomach?

• M. rectus abdominis and sheath

• Subcutaneous tissue

• Skin.

Urinary system:

jj

Name the kidney diseases that require surgery

Trauma, cyst, calculi, hydronephrosis, neoplasia, hemorrhage, urine leakage, pyelonephritis.

What is the physiological size of dogs kidneys?

3.2-9.3 cm.

Latin name for surgical opening of renal pelvis

Pyelo-litho-tomy.

Diseases of ureter which require surgery

Ectopic ureter, calculi, trauma, neoplasia, urine leakage, urethral stricture, recurrent inflammation.

The whole name for the contrast study to visualize kidneys and ureters

Myelography / Urethro-graphy - radiographic examination that uses a contrast medium: double contrast (contrast study with iodine).

Hydroureter is

Dilated ureter, urine-filled dilation due to obstruction.

In what does the ureter enter the urinary bladder?

At the trigonum.

2 basic types of ectopic ureter

a. Intra-mural b. Extra-mural.

Nephrectomy is - and can be

Surgical removal of part of the kidney (via para-costal laparotomy). Can be total/partial.

What is hydropropulsion of urethra?

Using water pressure as a force to move objects; used to dislodge calculi in the urethra.

Types of ureterotomy (uretrostomy) according to the location of surgery

pre-scrotal - scrotal - perineal - pre-pubic.

The main symptom of ectopic ureter

Incontinence (females mainly).

Uretrostomy is

Incision made into urethral lumen (to remove calculi, tumor or for biopsy of lesions).

• a permanent opening made surgically between urethra and skin

Name methods of diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture

• Abdominal palpation

• Digital rectal examination

• USG

• Radiography with non-toxic solution for contrast study

• Clinical signs + history of trauma.

Indications for cystotomy/cystectomy

• Obstruction

• Neoplasia

• Calculi (urolithiasis)

• Granulomatous inflammation

• Trauma.

Name 4 sutures for closing urinary bladder

• Single or double inverting patterns

Traditionally using a single or double layer oppositional or inverting suture pattern with absorbable material.

A single layer is always sufficient, bladder wall is thick.

The surgical name for opening the abdominal cavity when doing cystotomy

Laparotomy.?

Most common cancers on the wall of urinary bladder

1. Transitional cell carcinoma – most common

2. Squamous cell carcinoma

3. Adenocarcinoma.

Name the muscle on the urethra, which we separate when doing uretrotomy

Retractor penis muscle.

Define ectopic ureter.

Congenital anomaly where ureter does not enter bladder in the trigonum.

How long does it take for the wall of the urinary bladder to heal?

a) Fast, from 14 to 21 days after suture

b) Slowly, more than a month.

a) Fast, from 14 to 21 days after suture

What is the indication of cystopexy?

• Prevention of recurrent bladder herniation into perineal hernia + treatment of urinary incontinence associated with pelvic location of urinary bladder;

• 4-6 simple interrupted sutures are placed between cranial bladder body + ventral lateral bladder wall.

What are the indications of urethrostomy in dogs?

• Recurrent, obstructive calculi that cannot be managed medically

• Calculi that cannot be removed by retrograde urethrostomy or uretrotomy

• Urethral stricture

• Ventral or penile neoplasia or severe trauma

• Preputial neoplasia requiring penile amputation.

Perineal urethrostomy done on male cats is:

a. Together with castration in non-castrated males

b. Without castration in non-castrated males

c. Castration together with urethrostomy depends on owner's decision

d. We can only do prepubic urethrostomy on male cats.

a. Together with castration in non-castrated males

Where is the wall of urinary bladder incision made?

Ventral midline, away from urethral opening.

What are the layers of the urinary bladder?

• Serosa - the outer layer

• Muscularis (longitudinal – circular – longitudinal)

• Sub-mucosa

• Mucosa - the inner layer.

What is the difference between urethrotomy and urethrostomy?

Urethrotomy - incision made into the urethral lumen; Urethrostomy - creation of permanent stoma (opening).

Eye:

Schirmer's test is indicated when

History of discharge, conjunctivitis, corneal disease, keratitis sicca, any abnormality in tear production.

What surrounds anterior chamber of eye between iris and cornea?

The anterior chamber is filled with aqueous humor.

What produces aqueous humor?

Ciliary body.

Where is aqueous humor resorbed?

Orbital vessels.

When glaucoma occurs, the pupil is in:

Mydriasis.

Name main reflexes when doing eye examination

Pupillary light response
Palpebral/blink response
Vision test (drop cotton wool ball)
Corneal reflex.

Atropine causes:

Mydriasis.

Structures of cornea

a) Epithelium
b) Bowman's basement membrane
c) Stroma (collagen fibers + keratocytes)
d) Inner membrane - Endothelium.

Non-direct ophthalmoscopy is a method that produces:

An inverted, or reversed image.

When is the fluorescein test positive?

Within 1-4 minutes, change in color.

What is the function of the ciliary body in the eye?

Production of aqueous humor (fluid of the eye).

What is tonometry and the physiological range of IOP in dogs?

Tonometry - intra-ocular pressure examination (↓ in uveitis, ↑ in glaucoma).

Range in dogs - 15-25 mm/Hg.

What is the fluorescein eye test for?

The length of time taken from drops into conjunctival sac to appear in nostrils; to determine any problem or obstruction on the lacrimal apparatus & ducts.

When and why are corticosteroids contraindicated in ophthalmology?

If there are pre-existing local infections/inflamm (the layers of the eye are thin and perforation may happen).

What is the effect of gentamicin on the inner structures of the eye?

Used in bacterial (mainly pseudomonas) infections, can delay corneal healing and is toxic when the eye is perforated.

What is a flap and when do we use it?

Conjunctival flap - to protect the eye and help with healing; a flap of conjunctiva sutured over ulcer to aid healing and after 3-4 weeks sutures are removed (or absorbed).

What are the most common disorders of eyelashes and what kind of surgical intervention do they require?

• Distichiasis - extra eyelashes; Surgery - cryotherapy or electro-epilation.

• Trichiasis - hair from eyelid growing in the wrong direction; Surgery - removal.

• Ectopic cilia - cilia grow from the meibomian glands instead of the eyelid follicles, grow in the inner palpebral; Surgery - incise triangle shape around the ectopic hair, or cryotherapy or electro-epilation.

Describe the eyeball prolapse treatment and management.

Due to trauma, the eyeball should be put back in place surgically as soon as possible under general anesthesia. Eyelids can be sutured together. Treatment includes:

• antibiotics (systemic + topical ointments/creams) to prevent infection

• mydriatics

• corticosteroids.

Characterize follicular conjunctivitis, its etiology, clinical symptoms, and therapy.

Also called 'pink-eye'; chronic inflammation of the conjunctiva, with lymphoid hyperplasia of follicles of conjunctiva/third eyelid due to bacteria

(Chlamydia, Mycoplasma), virus (Herpes-virus, Calicivirus, Adenovirus), fungi, parasites, allergy, chemical/mechanical irritation.

CS - redness, thickening, dry eye, swollen eyelids.

Tx - treat the underlying cause, symptomatic care, treat clinical signs, eye-drops for dry eye, steroids, antibiotics.

What is the function of the iris?

Controlling the diameter and size of the pupil (and thus the amount of light reaching the retina). Eye color is also defined by the iris.

What is gonioscopy?

A device we use to visualize the irido-corneal angle in cases of glaucoma.

What is the Schirmer test and what are the normal ranges?

A method we use to quantify tear production (inserting the folded end of a special strip into the lower eyelid and wait 1 minute). Normal range - 15-25 mm.

How many layers does the tear film have?

1. Oil (lipid) layer - the outer layer (reduces evaporation of tears).

2. Water (aqueous) layer - the middle layer (lubricates the eye, washes away particles, prevents infection).

3. Mucin layer - the inner layer (moisturizes the eye).

Types of ulcers and types of therapy

• Superficial

• Deep

• Descemetocele (very deep)

• Perforated

Therapy includes antibiotics if bacterial, NSAIDs, topical mydriatic agents (atropine), surgery:

• therapeutic soft contact lens – for superficial ulcer

• keratotomy - removal of debris

• conjunctival flaps – to aid healing

• amniotic membrane - to cover ulcer, contain stem cells.

Clinical signs of uveitis

General - discharge, red eye, pain, impaired vision; Specific - enlarged vessels at corneal rim, decreased ocular pressure, aqueous flare, corneal edema, retinal detachment, myosis.

Dislocation of lens – types and diagnosis

Types:

• Primary - hereditary.

• Secondary - after trauma, glaucoma, eye disease, uveitis, intraocular pressure, tumors, cataract.
  Diagnosis - iris vibration, lens movement, floaters of the vitreous fibrils through the pupil, pain, edema, eye closure.

What is glaucoma, its etiology, clinical signs, and treatment?

Increased intraocular pressure due to obstruction of aqueous outflow. Can be:

• Primary (genetic)
• Secondary (ocular disease)

Clinical signs - pain, mydriasis, lens laxation, ciliary body atrophy, shrunken bulbi, non-functional, retinal atrophy, blindness.

Treatment - medical (decrease fluid production or increase outflow - mannitol, glycerol, trusopt, pilocarpine, timolol, betaxolol); surgical - partial/complete destruction of ciliary body (↓ production of fluid), ↑ outflow (by lens removal, create new channels via iris/ciliary body/sclera).

Temporary tarsorrhaphy – characteristics and indications

Joining the upper and lower eyelid to partially or completely close the eye. It is used to help the cornea heal or to protect the cornea during a short period of exposure or disease.
Indications:

• damage to the eyelids (chemical or burn injury)

• cornea that is at risk of damage & infection

• protrusion of the eye (proptosis) – risk for cornea

• poor blinking

• corneal ulcer (taking a long time to heal)

• prevent conjunctival swelling (chemosis)

• prevent exposure after ocular surgery

• after evisceration.

2 types of tracheal collapse

• Genetic/congenital (weakening of the cartilage)

• Trauma/extra-tracheal compression (tumor, enlarged LN/heart/esophagus, inflammation).

How do we diagnose tracheal collapse?

• Palpation

• Radiography.

What is pneumonectomy?

A surgical procedure to remove a lung (due to tumors, or massive infection/inflammation).

Thoracotomy according to localization

• Intercostal

• Trans-sternal.

Causes of internal pneumothorax

Traumatic, neoplasia, abscessation, infection, needle puncture.

Radiological pictures of pneumothorax on LL position of thorax

• Displacement of the heart

• Air in pleural cavity

• Collapse of lung tissue

• Increased radiolucency.

What is the therapeutic approach to impaling objects in thoracic cavity?

Stabilize patient, immobilize ribs by pins & wires or suture external splint to the ribs.

Describe the technique of thoracocentesis.

Removal of accumulated air or fluid. IV needle is slowly inserted into peritoneal space at a 45-degree angle, then removal of air or fluid in standing/sternal position from 4-7 ICS/mid-thorax/dorsal third.