patient care ch 20 easy quiz

Anaphylactic shock is what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic.
B) Hypovolemic.
C) Neurogenic.
D) Vasogenic.

D) Vasogenic.

What is a sign or symptom of shock?
A) Fever
B) Redness
C) Pallor
D) Increased Appetite

C) Pallor

Administration of iodinated contrast media may induce _
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Neurogenic shock
C) Anaphylactic shock
D) Hypovolemic shock

C) Anaphylactic shock

Which anaphylactic reaction is the most immediately life threatening?
A) Urticaria (Hives)
B) Nausea
C) Laryngeal edema
D) Itching

C) Laryngeal edema

Nausea is both a psychologic and physiologic reaction.
A) True
B) False

A) True

The victim has no verbal response but his leg moves with touch. What level of consciousness does this indicate?
A) Alert
B) Lethargic
C) Unconscious but reflexive
D) Comatose

C) Unconscious but reflexive

A condition with excessive insulin is called _
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis

B) Hypoglycemia

The type of shock from severe blood loss is _
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Septic
D) Neurogenic

B) Hypovolemic

What should you do if a patient turns pale and feels dizzy?
A) Give them a glass of water.
B) Have the patient sit up quickly.
C) Have the patient lie down.
D) Immediately call for a physician.

C) Have the patient lie down.

The medical term for a nosebleed is _
A) Vertigo
B) Syncope
C) Epistaxis
D) Urticaria

C) Epistaxis

The most important action when administering emergency care is _
A) Diagnosing the patient’s condition immediately.
B) Administering medication without proper authorization.
C) Providing a competent level of care and calling for assistance.
D) Moving the patient to a secure location without waiting for help.

C) Providing a competent level of care and calling for assistance.

In preparation for an emergency situation, a technologist should be familiar with _
A) The location of emergency equipment.
B) How to notify emergency personnel.
C) The specific policies and procedures for emergencies.
D) All of the above.

D) All of the above.

The medical term for bleeding outside the vessel into surrounding tissue is extravasation.
A) True
B) False

A) True

The medical term for fainting is _
A) Vertigo
B) Epistaxis
C) Syncope
D) Tachycardia

C) Syncope

Wound dehiscence is a common postoperative occurrence.
A) True
B) False

B) False

Emergency care is intended to _
A) Cure all immediate medical conditions.
B) Replace the need for professional medical response.
C) Prevent further harm, preserve life, and stabilize until assistance arrives.
D) Provide long-term care plans for patients.

C) Prevent further harm, preserve life, and stabilize until assistance arrives.

Hypovolemic shock is caused by loss of a large amount of blood.
A) True
B) False

A) True

Comparing hyperglycemia with hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia portrays _
A) Sweating and confusion.
B) Clinical symptoms of excessive thirst and urination.
C) Tremors and irritability.
D) Sudden unconsciousness without other symptoms.

B) Clinical symptoms of excessive thirst and urination.

To handle an asthmatic attack during a radiographic procedure, you should _
A) Have the patient lie flat on their back.
B) Administer oxygen immediately, regardless of saturation.
C) Have the patient sit down and use their aerosol inhaler.
D) Instruct the patient to take deep, slow breaths.

C) Have the patient sit down and use their aerosol inhaler.

When performing CPR as a single rescuer, after 30 compressions give _
A) One quick ventilation.
B) Five quick ventilations.
C) Two quick ventilations.
D) No ventilations, focus only on compressions.

C) Two quick ventilations.

The first priority with a deteriorating head injury is to _
A) Stop any visible bleeding immediately.
B) Maintain an open airway.
C) Conduct a full neurological assessment.
D) Administer pain relief.

B) Maintain an open airway.

The medical term for dizziness is _
A) Syncope
B) Epistaxis
C) Vertigo
D) Nausea

C) Vertigo

The term for a temporary suspension of consciousness is _
A) Vertigo
B) Seizure
C) Syncope
D) Stroke

C) Syncope

CPR can be stopped when _
A) The patient regains spontaneous circulation.
B) A physician pronounces the patient dead.
C) Another qualified rescuer takes over.
D) All of the above are correct.

D) All of the above are correct.

A sign of a diabetic coma is _
A) Excessive sweating.
B) Excessive thirst.
C) Shivering.
D) Sudden alertness.

B) Excessive thirst.

What type of shock arises from a severe reaction to contrast media?
A) Cardiogenic shock.
B) Neurogenic shock.
C) Anaphylactic shock.
D) Septic shock.

C) Anaphylactic shock.

A radiographer is permitted to stop CPR on their own initiative, without other conditions being met.
A) True
B) False

B) False

In performing CPR on a supine patient, you should look for **** in the crash cart.
A) Defibrillator pads
B) Backboard
C) Oxygen tank
D) IV fluids

B) Backboard.

What type of shock is caused by blood loss from a knife or gunshot wound?
A) Cardiogenic.
B) Hypovolemic.
C) Anaphylactic.
D) Obstructive.

B) Hypovolemic.

A common name for an emergency cart is the **** cart.
A) Trauma.
B) Quick-response.
C) Crash.
D) STAT.

C) Crash.

Symptoms of a head injury include _
A) Improved motor coordination.
B) Elevated mood.
C) Respiratory distress and change in consciousness.
D) Clear and coherent speech.

C) Respiratory distress and change in consciousness.

If a patient is having a seizure, you should _
A) Restrain their limbs tightly to stop the movements.
B) Place an object in their mouth to prevent tongue biting.
C) Go to the patient immediately and prevent him from harm.
D) Leave the patient alone until the seizure subsidies.

C) Go to the patient immediately and prevent him from harm.

What shock is caused by heart failure to pump enough blood?
A) Septic shock.
B) Neurogenic shock.
C) Anaphylactic shock.
D) Cardiogenic shock.

D) Cardiogenic shock.

CPR is indicated in all situations of cardiac arrest.
A) True
B) False

B) False

The Heimlich maneuver is used to _
A) Stop severe bleeding.
B) Relieve abdominal pain.
C) Propel an object out of the throat.
D) Stabilize bone fractures.

C) Propel an object out of the throat.

What may be given to counteract insulin shock (hypoglycemia)?
A) Plain water.
B) Black coffee.
C) Orange juice.
D) Insulin injection.

C) Orange juice.

In a bleeding situation, you should _
A) Immediately apply a tourniquet above the wound.
B) Wash the wound extensively with soap and water.
C) Call for help, apply pressure, and elevate the arm.
D) Wait for emergency medical services before touching the patient.

C) Call for help, apply pressure, and elevate the arm.

After iodine contrast administration, watch for _
A) Sudden increase in appetite.
B) Signs of reaction such as urticaria and shortness of breath.
C) Immediate improvement in condition.
D) A decrease in blood pressure only.

B) Signs of reaction such as urticaria and shortness of breath.

Which of the following is NOT an indication of a deteriorating head injury?
A) Change in consciousness.
B) Increased pulse rate.
C) Respiratory distress.
D) Vomiting.

B) Increased pulse rate.

A failure of the circulatory system to support vital functions is _
A) Hypertension.
B) Diabetes mellitus.
C) Shock.
D) Cardiac arrest.

C) Shock.

Comparing semiautomatic AED with automatic devices, which statement is true?
A) Only semiautomatic devices can deliver a shock.
B) Both devices determine the patient's cardiac rhythm.
C) Only automatic devices require user input for shock delivery.
D) Semiautomatic devices are typically used only in hospitals.

B) Both devices determine the patient's cardiac rhythm.

In two-person CPR, _
A) Compressions and ventilations are performed simultaneously.
B) Compressions are paused for ventilations.
C) Only compressions are performed.
D) Ventilations are given every 30 compressions without pausing compressions.

B) Compressions are paused for ventilations.

When working with burn patients, it is important to use _
A) Hot compresses to promote healing.
B) Tight bandages to prevent infection.
C) An extraordinary level of aseptic technique.
D) Only airborne precautions.

C) An extraordinary level of aseptic technique.

A disorganized cardiac rhythm where the ventricle flutters is called _
A) Bradycardia.
B) Tachycardia.
C) Asystole.
D) Fibrillation.

D) Fibrillation.

CPR on an infant is _
A) Entirely different from adult CPR, with no similarities.
B) Basically the same as on an adult but adjusted for size.
C) Not recommended, as infants are too fragile.
D) Performed using only chest compressions, no rescue breaths.

B) Basically the same as on an adult but adjusted for size.

A stroke is the same as cardiac arrest.
A) True
B) False

B) False.

Which of these listed options is NOT a primary component of the initial assessment for an unconscious patient?
A) Airway
B) Breathing
C) Circulation
D) Compression

D) Compression.

A myocardial infarction (heart attack) can lead to cardiac arrest.
A) True
B) False

A) True.

The Heimlich maneuver is modified for infants to include _
A) Only abdominal thrusts.
B) Back slaps and chest thrusts.
C) Forceful blows to the back only.
D) Finger sweeps inside the mouth.

B) Back slaps and chest thrusts.

Levels of consciousness range from alert to _
A) Dizzy.
B) Lethargic.
C) Comatose.
D) Unresponsive.

C) Comatose.

The Heimlich maneuver should never be done on a pregnant woman.
A) True
B) False

B) False.

To counteract hypoglycemia, you may give _
A) Only water.
B) A sugar-free beverage.
C) Orange juice.
D) Insulin.

C) Orange juice.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)?
A) Facial drooping.
B) Arm weakness.
C) Speech difficulty.
D) None of the above.

D) None of the above.

When caring for epistaxis (nosebleed), the patient should _
A) Lean backward to stop the bleeding.
B) Blow their nose forcefully to clear it.
C) Lean forward and pinch nostrils.
D) Apply ice directly to the bridge of the nose only.

C) Lean forward and pinch nostrils.

When using an AED, two chest pads are typically placed _
A) On the abdomen.
B) Both on the upper chest near the shoulders.
C) One on each side of the chest.
D) On the back only.

C) One on each side of the chest.

Anaphylactic shock is what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic.
B) Hypovolemic.
C) Neurogenic.
D) Vasogenic.

D) Vasogenic.

During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be

A. protected from injury.

B. placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus.

C. allowed to thrash freely.

D. given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.

A. protected from injury.

The type of shock often associated with pulmonary embolism or myocardial infarction is classified as

A. neurogenic.

B. cardiogenic.

C. hypovolemic.

D. septic.

B. cardiogenic.

Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator?

A. Epinephrine

B. Lidocaine

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Verapamil

A. Epinephrine

The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is
A. bronchial asthma.
B. bronchitis.
C. emphysema.
D. TB.

C. emphysema

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by shaking and nervousness. cold, clammy skin. cyanosis.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

Difficulty in breathing precipitated by stress and causing bronchospasm best describes

A. asthma.

B. anaphylaxis.

C. myocardial infarct.

D. rhinitis.

A. asthma.

Which of the following statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients?
Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking.
A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view.
Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include
a few hives
nausea
a flushed face

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include
dyspnea.
cyanosis.
retraction of intercostal spaces.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite, best describes

A. asthma.

B. anaphylaxis.

C. myocardial infarction.

D. rhinitis.

B. anaphylaxis.

If an emergency trauma patient experiences hemorrhaging from a leg injury, the radiographer should
apply pressure to the bleeding site.
call the emergency department for assistance.
apply a pressure bandage and complete the examination.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone physical changes that include
loss of muscle mass.
bone calcium.
mental alertness.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or a cardiac arrest?

A. Nitroglycerin

B. Epinephrine

C. Hydrocortisone

D. Digitoxin

B. Epinephrine

Moderate hypertension can produce damage to which of the following organ(s)
Lungs
Kidneys
Brain

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in overdistention of the alveolar spaces, is

A. emphysema.

B. empyema.

C. pneumothorax.

D. pneumoconiosis.

A. emphysema.

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy?
Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason.
Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated.
Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should

A. begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths.

B. proceed with the Heimlich maneuver.

C. begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min.

D. begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

D. begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

Improper support of a patient's fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in
movement of fracture fragments.
tearing of soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels.
initiation of muscle spasm.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Examples of COPD include
bronchitis.
pulmonary emphysema.
asthma.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about

A. 11/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip

B. 11/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip

C. 3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip

D. 3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip

A. 11/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip

A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following positions?

A. Dorsal recumbent with head elevated

B. Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

C. Lateral recumbent

D. Seated with feet supported

B. Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

A vasodilator would most likely be used for

A. angina.

B. cardiac arrest.

C. bradycardia.

D. antihistamine.

A. angina.

The medical term for hives is

A. vertigo.

B. epistaxis.

C. urticaria.

D. aura.

C. urticaria.

An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes

A. asthma

B. anaphylaxis

C. myocardial infarction

D. rhinitis

B. anaphylaxis

The medical term for nosebleed is

A. vertigo.

B. epistaxis.

C. urticaria.

D. aura.

B. epistaxis.

Skin discoloration owing to cyanosis may be observed in the gums. earlobes. corneas.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing

A. profuse sweating.

B. hot, dry skin.

C. dilated pupils.

D. warm, moist skin.

A. profuse sweating.

A diabetic patient who has not taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by fatigue cyanosis restlessness

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient is

A. 5 to 7 breaths/min.

B. 8 to 12 breaths/min.

C. 12 to 20 breaths/min.

D. 20 to 30 breaths/min.

C. 12 to 20 breaths/min.

The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a

A. defibrillator.

B. cardiac monitor.

C. crash cart.

D. resuscitation bag.

A. defibrillator.

The condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles is called

A. patent ductus arteriosus.

B. coarctation of the aorta.

C. atrial septal defect.

D. ventricular septal defect.

D. ventricular septal defect.

Anaphylactic shock manifests early symptoms that include
dysphagia.
itching of palms and soles.
constriction of the throat.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is

A. in cardiac arrest.

B. choking.

C. having a seizure.

D. suffering from hiccups.

B. choking.

When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, it is recommended that the number of compressions per minute, compared with that for an adult,

A. remain the same.

B. double.

C. decrease.

D. increase.

D. increase.

While performing mobile radiography on a patient, you note that the requisition is for a chest image to check placement of a Swan–Ganz catheter. A Swan–Ganz catheter is a(n)

A. pacemaker.

B. chest tube.

C. IV catheter.

D. urinary catheter.

C. IV catheter.

All the following are central venous lines except

A. a Port-a-Cath.

B. a PICC.

C. a Swan–Ganz catheter.

D. a Salem-sump.

D. a Salem-sump.

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or after an insect bite best describes

A. asthma

B. anaphylaxis

C. myocardial infarction

D. rhinitis

B. anaphylaxis

The term dysplasia refers to

A. difficulty speaking.

B. abnormal development of tissue.

C. malposition.

D. difficult or painful breathing.

B. abnormal development of tissue.

Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe

A. an inflammatory reaction.

B. bronchial asthma.

C. acute chest pain.

D. allergic shock.

D. allergic shock.

You and a fellow radiographer have received an unconscious patient from a motor vehicle accident. As you perform the examination, it is important that you
refer to the patient by name.
make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient.
reassure the patient about what you are doing.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The medical term used to describe the vomiting of blood is

A. hematemesis

B. hemoptysis

C. hematuria

D. epistaxis

A. hematemesis

What type of shock results from loss of blood?

A. Septic

B. Neurogenic

C. Cardiogenic

D. Hypovolemic

D. Hypovolemic

Nitroglycerin is used

A. to relieve pain from angina pectoris.

B. to prevent a heart attack.

C. as a vasoconstrictor.

D. to increase blood pressure.

A. to relieve pain from angina pectoris.

A patient whose systolic blood pressure is consistently greater than 140 mm Hg usually is considered

A. hypertensive.

B. hypotensive.

C. average/normal.

D. baseline.

A. hypertensive.