patient care ch 20 easy quiz
1.
A sign or symptom of shock is:
calmness
dry skin
increasing blood pressure
pallor
pallor
2.
Administration of iodinated contrast media may induce:
none of the above
concussion
diabetes
anaphylactic shock
anaphylactic shock
3.
Which of the following anaphylactic reactions is the most immediately life threatening?
shock
laryngeal edema
nausea
urticaria
laryngeal edema
4.
Nausea is both a psychologic and a physiologic reaction.
true
false
true
5.
You have come upon a motor vehicle accident as the first person to arrive. As you assess the victim’s level of consciousness, you begin to ask questions and encourage the victim to respond. During your efforts to do so, the victim has no verbal response to any stimuli, but his leg moves with your touch and pinch. This person demonstrates what level of consciousness?
Alert and responsive
Unconscious but reflexive
Comatose and unresponsive
Drowsy but can be aroused
Unconscious but reflexive
6.
The condition in which excessive insulin is present is called:
seizure
cardiac arrest
hypoglycemia
anaphylactic shock
hypoglycemia
7.
The type of shock that is a result of severe loss of blood is:
anaphylactic.
hypovolemic.
septic.
vasogenic.
hypovolemic
8.
What is the first thing you should do if a patient who is standing turns pale and says he feels dizzy?
Quickly take the exposure.
Have the patient inhale ammonia.
Take the patient’s blood pressure.
Have the patient lie down.
Have the patient lie down.
9.
The medical term for a nosebleed is:
aura
syncope
epistaxis
vertigo
epistaxis
10.
The single most important action for the radiographer when administering emergency care is:
waiting to provide care until any doctor arrives.
reacting to the emergent situation and providing any and all care needed to save the patient’s life.
providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance.
not getting involved for fear of medical and professional liability.
providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance.
11.
In preparation for any emergent situation, the professional technologist should become familiar with:
institutional numbers for emergency code announcements.
all of the above.
automatic external defibrillator (AED) operation.
location of and access to the crash cart.
all of the above.
12.
Bleeding outside the vessel is called hemorrhage.
true
false
true
13.
The medical term for fainting is:
aura
vertigo
epistaxis
syncope
syncope
14.
Wound dehiscence is a common postoperative occurrence.
true
false
false
15.
Providing care in an emergency situation is intended to:
1. prepare the injured patient for surgery.
2. prevent further harm to the patient.
3. preserve life.
4. place the patient into an unconscious state for transport.
5. stabilize the patient until the appropriate medical assistance arrives.
2, 3, and 5 only
3, 4, and 5 only
1, 4, and 5 only
1, 3, 4, and 5 only
2, 3, and 5 only
16.
Hypovolemic shock is caused by the loss of a large amount of blood.
true
false
true
17.
When comparing hyperglycemia with hypoglycemia, the former:
requires the patient receive a quick form of glucose.
is typically of rapid onset.
indicates a low blood glucose level.
portrays clinical symptoms of excessive thirst and urination as well as dry mouth.
portrays clinical symptoms of excessive thirst and urination as well as dry mouth
18.
An effective method to handle a patient with an asthmatic attack during a radiographic procedure would be to:
recognize the patient's situation and work faster to get the examination done and the patient returned to the nursing floor.
tell the patient to breathe faster and with less depth to avoid losing consciousness.
tell the patient to hold his or her breath for 30 seconds to recover.
have the patient sit down, and allow the patient to use his or her aerosol inhaler.
have the patient sit down, and allow the patient to use his or her aerosol inhaler.
19.
When performing CPR as a single rescuer:
sternal compressions should have a depth of 1 inch at the most.
after each group of 30 compressions, give two quick ventilations.
the compression rate is performed at 60 compressions per minute.
assess circulation using the temporal artery of the forehead.
after each group of 30 compressions, give two quick ventilations.
20.
With a deteriorating head injury, the first priority should be to:
maintain an open airway
stimulate the patient
allow the patient to sleep
shake the patient to keep the person awake
maintain an open airway
21.
The medical term for dizziness is:
aura
syncope
epistaxis
vertigo
vertigo
22.
The medical term for a temporary suspension of consciousness is:
aura.
syncope.
vertigo.
epistaxis.
syncope
23.
CPR can be stopped when:
a physician says it’s time to stop CPR.
the patient responds and shows signs of recovery.
the rescuer is physically exhausted.
All of the above are correct.
All of the above are correct.
24.
A sign or symptom of a diabetic coma is:
all of the above
excessive thirst
excessive saliva
shallow breathing
excessive thirst
25.
What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiographic examinations?
Cardiogenic
Septic
Anaphylactic
Hypovolemic
Anaphylactic
26.
A radiographer may stop doing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) when the schedule is backed up.
true
false
false
27.
When performing CPR on a patient who is supine on a cart, you would look for what item in the emergency crash cart?
Suction bottle
Backboard
Benadryl
Hemostat
Backboard
28.
What type of shock is caused by loss of blood from a knife or gunshot wound?
Septic
Anaphylactic
Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
Hypovolemic
29.
A common name for an emergency cart within medical imaging is the _____ cart.
crash
first aid
code
red
crash
30.
Symptoms of a head injury include:
respiratory distress.
change in state of consciousness.
both a and b.
increased appetite
both a and b.
31.
A 16-year-old patient comes to the diagnostic imaging department for a CT examination. He is lying on the table in a supine position and suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently, with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. The action that you must take is:
go to the patient immediately and prevent him from harm.
call for help, but do not leave the patient.
place the patient on the floor and begin CPR.
to do both a and b.
to do both a and b.
32.
What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs?
Septic
Neurogenic
Anaphylactic
Cardiogenic
Cardiogenic
33.
CPR is indicated in all situations involving cardiac arrest.
true
false
false
34.
The Heimlich maneuver:
is used to propel an object out of the throat
increases intrathoracic pressure
all of the above
is used when a person may be choking
all of the above
35.
Which of the following may be given to a patient to counteract insulin shock?
hamburger
none of the above
orange juice
peanut butter
orange juice
36.
As you are radiographing a patient from the ER who has a knife wound to the upper extremity, you notice that his wound dressing is becoming saturated with blood quickly and he is getting lightheaded. You should:
call for help, apply pressure to the wound site, and elevate his arm.
tell the patient to lean over to get his arm lower than his heart.
lay the patient down and begin CPR.
remove the dressing to assess the degree of bleeding.
call for help, apply pressure to the wound site, and elevate his arm.
37.
After the administration of an iodine-based contrast into a patient, it is important for the technologist to observe the patient for:
signs of a reaction such as increased hunger, cold extremities, and bladder swelling.
urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest.
excessive salivation, dry eyes, and nasal dryness.
blurred vision, syncope, and epistaxis.
urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest.
38.
Which of the following is not an indication of a deteriorating head injury?
lethargy
irritability
slowing respiration
increased pulse rate
increased pulse rate
39.
A general term that indicates a failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions is:
stroke
shock
all of the above
diabetes
shock
40.
When comparing a semiautomatic AED device with an automatic device:
both devices determine the patient’s cardiac rhythm.
the automatic device robotically places the AED paddles on the patient.
none of the above are correct.
the semiautomatic AED automatically shocks the patient without action by the operator.
both devices determine the patient’s cardiac rhythm.
41.
When performing two-person CPR:
compressions are at rate of 100 per minute.
the rescuers can smoothly switch positions as they choose.
compressions are paused briefly to give two ventilations.
All of the above are correct.
All of the above are correct.
42.
When working with burn patients, it is critically important to:
position the patient with positioning aids such as clamps, sandbags, and tape.
spray the burn dressing with lidocaine to relieve the pain.
increase the air circulation in the room to encourage healing.
use an extraordinary level of aseptic technique.
use an extraordinary level of aseptic technique.
43.
A disorganized cardiac rhythm in which the ventricle “flutters” and loses cardiac output is called:
lethargy.
pallor.
fibrillation.
syncope.
fibrillation
44.
CPR performed on an infant:
uses a ventilation depth that should be as deep as for an adult.
uses two arms locked at the elbows, just as in an adult.
requires chest compressions of 1 to 2 inches.
is basically the same as on an adult but adjusted based on patient size.
is basically the same as on an adult but adjusted based on patient size.
45.
A stroke is the same thing as cardiac arrest.
false
true
false
46.
All of the following are related EXCEPT:
airway.
circulation.
breathing.
compression.
compression
47.
A myocardial infarction can lead to cardiogenic shock.
true
false
true
48.
The Heimlich maneuver is:
used to start an intravenous line for drug administration.
never used on a pregnant patient.
None of the above are correct.
modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts.
modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts.
49.
Levels of consciousness range from alert to comatose.
true
false
true
50.
The Heimlich maneuver should never be performed on a pregnant woman.
false
true
false
51.
Which of the following may be given to a patient to counteract hypoglycemia?
Peanut butter
Hamburger
Buttered toast
Orange juice
Orange juice
52.
Which is not a sign or symptom of a CVA?
slurred speech
loss of vision
none of the above
paralysis
none of the above
53.
When caring for a patient with epistaxis, the patient:
needs to be treated for a life-threatening condition and a Code announced.
the patient should sit back with their head tilted and heparin gel should be applied inside the nose.
should lean forward and pinch his/her nostrils against the midline septum for 10-15 minutes.
should lie down quickly and tilt their head back.
should lean forward and pinch his/her nostrils against the midline septum for 10-15 minutes.
54.
When using an automatic external defibrillator (AED):
CPR can be terminated, as it is of no value once the AED is attached.
the heart is in normal sinus rhythm.
it is used simultaneously with CPR compressions.
two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs.
two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs.
55.
Anaphylactic shock is what type of shock?
neurogenic
hypovolemic
cardiogenic
vasogenic
vasogenic
1.
During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be
A.
protected from injury.
B.
placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus.
C.
allowed to thrash freely.
D.
given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.
A.
protected from injury.
2.
The type of shock often associated with pulmonary embolism or myocardial infarction is classified as
A.
neurogenic.
B.
cardiogenic.
C.
hypovolemic.
D.
septic.
B.
cardiogenic.
3.
Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator?
A.
Epinephrine
B.
Lidocaine
C.
Nitroglycerin
D.
Verapamil
A.
Epinephrine
4.
The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is
A.
bronchial asthma.
B.
bronchitis.
C.
emphysema.
D.
TB.
C.
emphysema
5.
A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by
1. shaking and nervousness.
2. cold, clammy skin.
3. cyanosis.
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
C.
1 and 2 only
6.
Difficulty in breathing precipitated by stress and causing bronchospasm best describes
A.
asthma.
B.
anaphylaxis.
C.
myocardial infarct.
D.
rhinitis.
A.
asthma.
7.
Which of the following statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients?
Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking.
A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view.
Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
C.
1 and 3 only
8.
A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include
a few hives
nausea
a flushed face
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
9.
Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include
dyspnea.
cyanosis.
retraction of intercostal spaces.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
10.
Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite, best describes
A.
asthma.
B.
anaphylaxis.
C.
myocardial infarction.
D.
rhinitis.
B.
anaphylaxis.
11.
If an emergency trauma patient experiences hemorrhaging from a leg injury, the radiographer should
apply pressure to the bleeding site.
call the emergency department for assistance.
apply a pressure bandage and complete the examination.
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
A.
1 and 2 only
12.
A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone physical changes that include loss of
muscle mass.
bone calcium.
mental alertness.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
B.
1 and 2 only
13.
Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or a cardiac arrest?
A.
Nitroglycerin
B.
Epinephrine
C.
Hydrocortisone
D.
Digitoxin
B.
Epinephrine
14.
Moderate hypertension can produce damage to which of the following organ(s)
1. Lungs
2. Kidneys
3. Brain
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
15.
Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in overdistention of the alveolar spaces, is
A.
emphysema.
B.
empyema.
C.
pneumothorax.
D.
pneumoconiosis.
A.
emphysema.
16.
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy?
Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason.
Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated.
Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between.
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
17.
You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should
A.
begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths.
B.
proceed with the Heimlich maneuver.
C.
begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min.
D.
begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.
D.
begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.
18.
Improper support of a patient's fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in
movement of fracture fragments.
tearing of soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels.
initiation of muscle spasm.
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
19.
Examples of COPD include
bronchitis.
pulmonary emphysema.
asthma.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
20.
Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about
A.
11/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip
B.
11/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip
C.
3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip
D.
3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip
A.
11/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip
21.
A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following positions?
A.
Dorsal recumbent with head elevated
B.
Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated
C.
Lateral recumbent
D.
Seated with feet supported
B.
Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated
22.
A vasodilator would most likely be used for
A.
angina.
B.
cardiac arrest.
C.
bradycardia.
D.
antihistamine.
A.
angina.
23.
The medical term for hives is
A.
vertigo.
B.
epistaxis.
C.
urticaria.
D.
aura.
C.
urticaria.
24.
An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes
A.
asthma
B.
anaphylaxis
C.
myocardial infarction
D.
rhinitis
B.
anaphylaxis
25.
The medical term for nosebleed is
A.
vertigo.
B.
epistaxis.
C.
urticaria.
D.
aura.
B.
epistaxis.
26.
Skin discoloration owing to cyanosis may be observed in the
gums.
earlobes.
corneas.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
B.
1 and 2 only
27.
A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing
A.
profuse sweating.
B.
hot, dry skin.
C.
dilated pupils.
D.
warm, moist skin.
A.
profuse sweating.
28.
A diabetic patient who has not taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by
fatigue
cyanosis
restlessness
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
C.
1 and 3 only
29.
The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient is
A.
5 to 7 breaths/min.
B.
8 to 12 breaths/min.
C.
12 to 20 breaths/min.
D.
20 to 30 breaths/min.
C.
12 to 20 breaths/min.
30.
The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a
A.
defibrillator.
B.
cardiac monitor.
C.
crash cart.
D.
resuscitation bag.
A.
defibrillator.
31.
The condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles is called
A.
patent ductus arteriosus.
B.
coarctation of the aorta.
C.
atrial septal defect.
D.
ventricular septal defect.
D.
ventricular septal defect.
32.
Anaphylactic shock manifests early symptoms that include
dysphagia.
itching of palms and soles.
constriction of the throat.
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
33.
The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is
A.
in cardiac arrest.
B.
choking.
C.
having a seizure.
D.
suffering from hiccups.
B.
choking.
34.
When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, it is recommended that the number of compressions per minute, compared with that for an adult,
A.
remain the same.
B.
double.
C.
decrease.
D.
increase.
D.
increase.
35.
While performing mobile radiography on a patient, you note that the requisition is for a chest image to check placement of a Swan–Ganz catheter. A Swan–Ganz catheter is a(n)
A.
pacemaker.
B.
chest tube.
C.
IV catheter.
D.
urinary catheter.
C.
IV catheter.
36.
All the following are central venous lines except
A.
a Port-a-Cath.
B.
a PICC.
C.
a Swan–Ganz catheter.
D.
a Salem-sump.
D.
a Salem-sump.
37.
Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or after an insect bite best describes
A.
asthma
B.
anaphylaxis
C.
myocardial infarction
D.
rhinitis
B.
anaphylaxis
38.
The term dysplasia refers to
A.
difficulty speaking.
B.
abnormal development of tissue.
C.
malposition.
D.
difficult or painful breathing.
B.
abnormal development of tissue.
39.
Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe
A.
an inflammatory reaction.
B.
bronchial asthma.
C.
acute chest pain.
D.
allergic shock.
D.
allergic shock.
40.
You and a fellow radiographer have received an unconscious patient from a motor vehicle accident. As you perform the examination, it is important that you
refer to the patient by name.
make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient.
reassure the patient about what you are doing.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, and 3
D.
1, 2, and 3
41.
The medical term used to describe the vomiting of blood is
A.
hematemesis
B.
hemoptysis
C.
hematuria
D.
epistaxis
A.
hematemesis
42.
What type of shock results from loss of blood?
A.
Septic
B.
Neurogenic
C.
Cardiogenic
D.
Hypovolemic
D.
Hypovolemic
43.
Nitroglycerin is used
A.
to relieve pain from angina pectoris.
B.
to prevent a heart attack.
C.
as a vasoconstrictor.
D.
to increase blood pressure.
A.
to relieve pain from angina pectoris.
44.
A patient whose systolic blood pressure is consistently greater than 140 mm Hg usually is considered
A.
hypertensive.
B.
hypotensive.
C.
average/normal.
D.
baseline.
A.
hypertensive.
45.
In what order should the following examinations be performed?
Upper GI series
IVU
BE
A.
3, 1, 2
B.
1, 3, 2
C.
2, 1, 3
D.
2, 3, 1
D.
2, 3, 1
46.
An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be
A.
systemic.
B.
epidemic.
C.
idiopathic.
D.
pathogenic.
C.
idiopathic.