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A hypothetical pathogenic bacterium (disease-causing microorganism) is introduced into a susceptible animal model of infection, leading to no symptoms. Which of the following statements about Koch's Postulates is correct?
does not fulfill Koch’s postulates
What is not a feature of the structure and RNA expression of prokaryotic genomes?
introns
Removal of the Shine Dalgarno (RBS) sequence of the gene would inhibit what process?
translational initiation
If the -35 and -10 sequences were removed, the binding to the promoter of which of the following would be inhibited?
sigma factors
What is not an example of horizontal gene transfer?
regulation of plasmid copy number
An Ames test is performed to determine the mutagenicty of two compounds (A and B). Incubation of the Ames test bacteria with compound A led to 10,000 colonies on the resulting histidine- plate. Incubation with an equal amount of compound B with an equal amount of test bacteria led to 100 colonies on the histidine- plate. Which compound is more mutagenic?
A is more mutagenic
What is characteristic of Gram+ cell envelopes?
Lipoteichoic acid
What causes the expression (activation) of SOS genes?
RecA binding to ssDNA causes LexA to degrade itself
What forms part of the crosslinks between peptidoglycan monomers components in Gram-positive bacteria?
glycine
In PTS transport of glucose, why does the cell phosphorylate glucose?
Modification of glucose maintains a concentration gradient
What did Pasteur’s swan-neck flask experiment prove?
Disproved spontaneous generation (microbes come from other microbes)
List Koch’s postulates (in order)
Observe microbe → isolate → cause disease → reisolate
Major limitation of Koch’s postulates
→ Many microorganisms cannot be grown in pure culture
→ Some pathogens grow extremely slowly
→ Some microbes require host-specific growth factors
→ Ethical issues: cannot intentionally infect humans
→ Some diseases are caused by multiple organisms
→ Some infected individuals are asymptomatic carriers
→ Some pathogens only infect specific hosts (no animal model)
Who introduced agar for solid media?
→ Angelina and Walther Hesse
Why was agar important?
→ Allows isolation of single colonies
Gram stain steps in order
Crystal violet → iodine → alcohol → safranin
Why do Gram+ stain purple?
Thick peptidoglycan retains crystal violet
Why do Gram− stain pink?
Thin peptidoglycan loses crystal violet and takes safranin
Gram+ features
Thick peptidoglycan, teichoic acids, no outer membrane
Gram− features
Thin peptidoglycan, outer membrane, LPS, periplasm
Unique to Gram−
Outer membrane / LPS
What makes peptidoglycan rigid?
Peptide crosslinking of glycan chains
Gram+ peptide interbridge uses what amino acid?
glycine
cell envelope
everything surrounding the cytoplasm
It includes:
Cell membrane
Cell wall (peptidoglycan)
Sometimes an outer membrane (Gram− only)
Primary active transport
Uses ATP directly
Secondary active transport
Uses existing gradient
moves solutes against their concentration gradient using energy stored in electrochemical gradients, rather than direct ATP hydrolysis
PTS system energy source
PEP
What happens to sugar in PTS?
it is phosphorylated during transport
Why phosphorylate glucose?
Maintains inward concentration gradient
Symporter
Two solutes move same direction
Antiporter
Two solutes move opposite directions
Silent mutation
No amino acid change
Missense mutation
Different amino acid
Nonsense mutation
Premature stop codon
Frameshift mutation
Reading frame shifted (insertion/deletion not multiple of 3)
What does Ames test detect?
Mutagens
What does more colonies mean in Ames test?
higher mutagenicity
What type of bacteria are used in Ames test?
his⁻ (histidine-requiring)
What is a revertant?
Mutant that regains ability to synthesize histidine
Primase
Makes RNA primers
RNase H
Removes RNA primers
DNA polymerase
Extends DNA
Topoisomerase
Relieves supercoiling
What activates SOS response?
RecA binding single-stranded DNA
Role of LexA
Represses SOS genes until cleaved
Promoter definition
DNA site where RNA polymerase binds
Conserved promoter regions
−35 and −10
Which protein recognizes promoter?
Sigma factor
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Ribosome binding site
Shine-Dalgarno interacts with
16S rRNA
Removal of Shine-Dalgarno affects
Translation initiation
Rho-dependent termination
Rho helicase destabilizes RNA/DNA
Rho-independent termination
Hairpin + U-rich region
Transformation
Uptake of naked DNA
Transduction
Phage-mediated DNA transfer
Conjugation
Cell-to-cell DNA transfer via pilus
Generalized transduction
Random bacterial genes transferred
Specialized transduction
Only genes near prophage site
Not HGT example
Regulation of plasmid copy number
High copy plasmids advantage
Ensures inheritance
Low copy plasmids advantage
Lower metabolic cost
Rolling circle replication
Single strand nick → displacement → replication
Stringent plasmids
Replicate with chromosome
Relaxed plasmids
Replicate independently
Central dogma
DNA → RNA → Protein
What is homology?
Shared sequence from shared ancestry
Orthologous genes
Same gene in different species (speciation)
Paralogous genes
Gene duplication within same genome
What makes a good molecular clock?
Universal, conserved, slow constant mutation rate
Why is 16S rRNA a good molecular clock?
Universal, conserved, interacts with Shine-Dalgarno
What part of RNA polymerase recognizes promoters?
Sigma factor
What sugars make up peptidoglycan?
→ NAG and NAM
→ Contains glycan chains + peptides
What are transposons?
Mobile DNA elements moved by transposase
Why are transposons important?
Can spread antibiotic resistance
Two main bacterial double-strand break repair methods
NHEJ and RecA-mediated recombination
What is passive transport?
Movement down concentration gradient without energy
What is active transport?
Movement against concentration gradient requiring energy
Who first observed living microorganisms? (Microscope)
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek