NUR612 Pathophysiology Final McCance & Huether (8th ed., 2019)

It is true that a eukaryotic cell

A. is smaller than a prokaryotic cell.

B. contains structures called organelles.

C. lacks a well-defined nucleus.

D. does not contain histones.

B. Contains structures called organelles.

Eukaryotic cells contain organelles and histones, they have a well-defined nucleus, and are larger than prokaryotic cells.

Ch01.1

The function of a histone found in a eukaryote cell focuses on cellular

A. division.

B. movement.

C. activities.

D. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) folding.

D. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) folding.

The histones are binding proteins that cause the supercoiling of DNA into chromosomes and do not affect cellular division, movement, or activities.

Ch01.2

An organelle that is responsible for the metabolism of cellular energy is referred to as a/an

A. Golgi complex.

B. mitochondrion.

C. endoplasmic reticulum.

D. nucleolus.

B. mitochondrion

Mitochondria play a role in cellular metabolism, cellular respiration, and energy production. The Golgi complex is responsible for processing and packaging proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum, where they are synthesized. The nucleolus is a small, dense structure that contains the ribonucleic acid (RNA), DNA, and DNA-binding proteins.

Ch01.3

Which statement best describes a desmosome?

A. A desmosome is a barrier to diffusion.

B. Desmosomes hold cells together by continuous bands.

C. A desmosome is a communicating tunnel.

D. Desmosomes function as a zona occludens.

B. Desmosomes hold cells together by continuous bands.

The desmosome is a type of cell junction. The other two types include tight junctions and gap junctions. Desmosomes hold cells together by forming a continuous band of epithelial tissue or belt (or button-like) points of contact. They are also a source of structural stability. Tight junctions serve as barriers to diffusion and prevent the movement of substances through transport proteins. Gap junctions are clusters of communicating tunnels.

Ch01.4

Which statement describes the function of a second messenger?

A. Binds with membrane-bound receptors via a ligand

B. Triggers a cascade of intracellular events

C. Opens specific channels in the cell membrane

D. Blocks a membrane-bound receptor signal

B. Triggers a cascade of intracellular events

The binding of a ligand to a cell surface receptor triggers the activation of intracellular second messengers. Second messengers activate signal transduction pathways in the cell that can initiate different intracellular events. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and calcium (Ca++) are the two major second-messenger pathways. First messengers are the extracellular ligands that bind to cell surface receptors. Binding of first messengers can result in the opening or closing of specific cell membrane channels or the activation of second messengers.

Ch01.5

Which statement is correct regarding cellular energy?

A. Glycolysis is the building of sugar molecules.

B. Oxidative cellular metabolism is a single reaction making adenosine triphosphate

(ATP).

C. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria.

D. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the presence of oxygen.

C. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria.

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria. This is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP. Glycolysis is a process that breaks down glucose molecules; it produces a net of two ATP molecules. Oxidation is a process during which a pair of electrons are removed and transferred. Oxidative cellular metabolism involves 10 biochemical reactions. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen. Aerobic means in the presence of oxygen.

Ch01.6

Movement of a solute molecule from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called

A. diffusion.

B. filtration.

C. osmosis.

D. hydrostatic pressure.

A. diffusion.

Diffusion is the movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Osmosis is the movement of water down a concentration gradient from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. Filtration is the movement of water and solute through a membrane because of a greater pushing pressure on one side of the membrane than the other. Hydrostatic pressure is the mechanical force of water pushing against a cell membrane.

Ch01.7

Which is an example of an energy-releasing process?

A. Anabolism

B. Catabolism

C. Substrate-induced reaction

D. Second messenger system

B. Catabolism

Catabolism is an energy-releasing process. The energy-using process is anabolism. A substrate is a specific substance that is converted to a product in the reaction. A second messenger is a "pass-it-on signal." This occurs when a first messenger activates a receptor that then triggers a pass-it-on signal.

Ch01.8

Which describes an amphipathic molecule?

A. It is permeable to water only.

B. It is a nonpolar molecule.

C. It is both hydrophobic and hydrophilic.

D. It is a one-layered structure.

C. It is both hydrophobic and hydrophilic.

The amphipathic molecule is both hydrophobic and hydrophilic. A hydrophilic molecule is a charged, water-loving molecule. A hydrophobic molecule is an uncharged or water-hating molecule. A polar molecule is another name for an amphipathic molecule.

Ch01.9

Which are the roles of relay chains in signal transduction? (Select all that apply.)

A. Transfer the signal

B. Converge the signal

C. Amplify the signal

D. Distribute the signal

A. Transfer the signal

C. Amplify the signal

D. Distribute the signal

The functions of relay chains include transferring the signal from its reception point to another part of

the cell where it is expected; amplifying the signal received and making it stronger; and distributing

the signal so that it influences several processes in parallel. The signal can diverge, not converge, and be relayed to several different intracellular targets.

Ch01.10

Which are functions of a protein? (Select all that apply.)

A. Pores or transport channels

B. Enzymes that drive pumps

C. Cell surface markers

D. Synapses for cells

A. Pores or transport channels

B. Enzymes that drive pumps

C. Cell surface markers

Proteins may act as transport channels, pores, cell surface markers, enzymes that drive pumps, catalysts, and cell adhesion molecules (CAMs), or they may act as the key components of ATP synthesis. Synapses are the connections between two nerve cells

Ch01.11

Ribosomes are nucleoproteins that

A. are synthesized in the mitochondria and secreted into the cytosol.

B. are synthesized in the cytoplasm.

C. consist of a network of cisternae.

D. synthesize a signal recognition sequence.

D. synthesize a signal recognition sequence.

Ch1.1PPT

Structure and Function of Cellular Components of Eukaryotic Cell

The plasma membrane of a cell is

A. permeable to water soluble molecules' movement into the cell.

B. composed primarily of amphipathic molecules.

C. dimpled because of peripheral membrane proteins.

D. impermeable to lipid-soluble molecule

B. composed primarily of amphipathic molecules

Ch1.2PPT Structure and Function of Cellular Components of Eukaryotic Cell

Which information is correct regarding neurotransmitters?

A. Act on the cells that produce and secrete them.

B. Act on nearby cells that also take them up and destroy them.

C. Are produced by neurosecretory neurons and transmitted via the blood.

D. Diffuse across the synaptic cleft and act on postsynaptic target cel

D. Diffuse across the synaptic cleft and act on postsynaptic target cell

Ch1.3PPT Cellular Communication

A nurse knows that active transport requires

A. receptors capable of recognizing and binding with specific molecules.

B. a hydrostatic pressure gradient between intracellular and extracellular regions.

C. a molecule bound to a ligand that moves the substance down the gradient.

D. the presence of pores in the cell membrane with no energy expenditure.

A. receptors capable of recognizing and binding with specific molecules.

Ch1.4PPT Membrane Transport: Cellular Intake and Output

A nurse recalls depolarization occurs when the

A. Cell is more negatively charged and its polarity is negative.

B. sodium-potassium (Na+/K+) pump removes sodium from the cell.

C. voltage-regulated channels open and Na+ enters the cell.

D. Cell decreases by 25-30 millivolts and reaches threshold

C. voltage-regulated channels open and Na+ enters the cell.

Ch1.5PPT Movement of Electrical Impulses

What is a collection of blood that is located between the skull and the dura is called?

A. Epidural hematoma

B. Contusion

C. Subdural hematoma

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A. Epidural hematoma

Epidural hematomas are a collection of blood between the inner surface of the skull and the dura. A contusion is a bruise or bleeding into the skin and underlying tissue. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura and the surface of the brain. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition in which a cerebral arterial aneurysm ruptures.

Ch02.1

The possible diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome is supported when an infant brought to the emergency department is found to have which type of cerebral hematoma?

A. Epidural

B. Subdural

C. Subarachnoid

D. Avulsion

B. Subdural

A subdural hematoma is associated with blows, falls, or sudden acceleration or deceleration of the head, such as the sudden movements that occur with shaken baby syndrome. Epidural hematomas are the result of a torn artery, often associated with a skull fracture. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition in which a cerebral arterial aneurysm has ruptured. An avulsion is a tear or rip in the skin, resulting when tensile strength of skin or tissue is exceeded.

Ch02.2

Which term describes a tear or rip of the skin with a jagged and irregular edge?

A. Abrasion

B. Incision

C. Laceration

D. Incised wound

C. Laceration

Lacerations occur when the tensile strength of the skin is exceeded, resulting in ragged and irregular abraded edges; an extreme example is avulsion, in which a wide area of tissue is pulled away. An abrasion results from the removal of the superficial layers of the skin caused by friction between the skin and the injuring object. An incision is a precise cut with an instrument that leaves regular clean edges. An incised wound is longer than it is deep and has distinct edges without abrasion.

Ch02.3

Which term describes oxygen failing to reach the blood?

A. Suffocation

B. Strangulation

C. Drowning

D. Petechiae

A. Suffocation

Suffocation occurs when oxygen fails to reach the blood. It is a subgroup of asphyxial injuries. Strangulation is caused by compression and closure of the blood vessels and air passages by external pressure on the neck. Drowning occurs when water or fluid alters the delivery of oxygen. Petechiae are found on the neck of a victim who has been strangled. It is the result of compression of soft tissue and the breakage of blood vessels.

Ch02.4

What is the physiologic mechanism associated with heat exhaustion?

A. Peripheral vasoconstriction

B. Degenerative changes in the myelin sheath

C. Hemoconcentration from salt and water loss

D. Significantly increased blood volume

C. Hemoconcentration from salt and water loss

Heat exhaustion is defined by a sufficient salt and water loss that results in hemoconcentration. Hypotension occurs secondary to fluid loss and may cause a collapse. The individual may feel weak and nauseated. Heat stroke is a life-threatening condition associated with high environmental temperatures and humidity. Generalized peripheral vasodilation and decreased circulating blood volume are significant. Degenerative changes in the cellular myelin sheath are associated with hypothermic injury.

Ch02.5

Which statement regarding altitude and illness is true?

A. Caisson disease occurs when descending too quickly while diving.

B. Pulmonary edema is the result of hypoxia and increased pulmonary hypertension.

C. Gas emboli are caused by oxygen bubbles.

D. Altitude sickness occurs from blast injuries.

B. Pulmonary edema is the result of hypoxia and increased pulmonary hypertension.

High altitude causes hypoxic injury. This hypoxia causes shunting of blood from the periphery to vital organs including the lungs and results in pulmonary hypertension. Caisson disease is often called the bends and occurs when divers ascend too quickly, resulting in a gas embolism. Gas emboli are formed when carbon dioxide and nitrogen, which are normally dissolved in blood, bubble out of solution. Blast injuries cause

significant injury through the collapse of the thorax, the rupture of internal organs, and widespread hemorrhage.

Ch02.6

Which form of necrosis is associated with tuberculous infections?

A. Coagulative

B. Liquefactive

C. Fat

D. Caseous

D. Caseous

Caseous necrosis is normally found in the lung from tuberculosis. Tissues appear soft and granular and resemble clumped cheese (hence the name caseous) and are surrounded by a granulomatous inflammatory wall; this pulmonary infection is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a combination of liquefactive and coagulation necrosis. Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in the kidneys, heart, and adrenal glands and is caused by protein degradation. Liquefactive necrosis commonly occurs in the neurons and glial cells. Fat necrosis occurs in the breast, pancreas, and other abdominal structures. It is cellular dissolution caused by powerful enzymes called lipases.

Ch02.7

Which are causes of cellular injury? (Select all that apply.)

A. Antioxidants

B. Chemical agents

C. Hypoxia

D. Mechanical factors

B. Chemical agents

C. Hypoxia

D. Mechanical factors

Injury to cells may be caused by chemical agents, hypoxia, free radicals, infectious agents, physical and mechanical factors, immunologic reactions, genetic factors, and nutritional imbalances. Antioxidants block the synthesis of free radicals.

Ch02.8

Which are the most common risks of lead exposure in children? (Select all that apply.)

A. Slowed growth

B. Psychosis

C. Reduced IQ

D. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A. Slowed growth

C. Reduced IQ

D. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

Children exposed to lead in the home are at increased risk of damage to the brain and nervous system, slowed growth and development, learning and behavior problems, and hearing and speech problems. Specifically, these risks include reduced IQ, ADHD, juvenile delinquency, and criminal behavior. Psychosis is not a common risk of lead exposure in children.

Ch02.9

Which statements are true regarding apoptosis? (Select all that apply.)

A. An active process of cellular self-destruction

B. A process that deletes cells during embryonic development

C. Local cell death after severe and sudden injury

D. Causes cell loss in proliferating cell populations

A. An active process of cellular self-destruction

B. A process that deletes cells during embryonic development

D. Causes cell loss in proliferating cell populations

Apoptosis is programmed cell death. It is an active process of cellular self-destruction that is implicated in normal embryonic development, as well as in rapidly proliferating cancer cells. Necrosis is accidental cell death that occurs to local cells after a severe and sudden injury.

Ch02.10

Which of the following statements is correct regarding pathologic hyperplasia?

A. Produces abnormal proliferation of abnormal cells.

B. Is an adaptive mechanism that enables organ regeneration.

C. Increases cell size.

D. May occur in response to growth factors

D. May occur in response to growth factors

Ch2.1PPT Cellular Adaptation

A nurse knows that free radicals may be produced by

A. protein peroxidation.

B. metabolism of exogenous chemicals or drugs.

C. spontaneous decay of superoxide.

D. vitamins E and C supplements.

B. metabolism of exogenous chemicals or drugs.

Ch2.2 Cellular Injury

Which of the following is true about alcohol (ethanol)?

A. Is metabolized via the microsomal P-450.

B. Is primarily metabolized and excreted by the kidneys.

C. Increases activation of methionine, an essential amino acid.

D. Can produce hypermagnesemia with chronic use

A. Is metabolized via the microsomal P-450

Ch2.3PPT Cellular Injury

A nurse remembers that aging is associated with

A. reduced cross-linking of collagen.

B. reduced degradation of collagen.

C. increased cross-linking of collagen.

D. increased collagen synthesis.

C. increased cross-linking of collagen.

Ch2.4PPT Aging and Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology

A person with hypertension and heart failure has edema in the lower legs and sacral area. The nurse suspects this condition is due to a(n)

A. increase in plasma oncotic pressure.

B. decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure.

C. decrease in lymph obstruction pressure.

D. increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure

D. increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure

Ch2.5 Alterations in Water Movement

A person reports severe diarrhea for 2 days. The nurse understands this stimulates a(n)

A. reduction in aldosterone secretion.

B. reduction in renin secretion.

C. increase in antidiuretic hormone secretion.

D. increase in natriuretic peptide secretion

C. increase in antidiuretic hormone secretion.

Ch2.6PPT Water Balance

A person arrives in the emergency department after a loss of consciousness and the development of Kussmaul respirations. The individual has a history of diabetes and 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse suspects the person has which of the following primary disorders?

A. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Respiratory acidosis

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic acidosis

Ch2.7PPT Summary Question 3

A person with a history of chronic lung disease arrives in the clinic with a 1-week history of a productive cough, hypoventilation, and headache. The nurse suspects the person is experiencing

A. Respiratory acidosis.

B. Respiratory alkalosis.

C. Metabolic acidosis.

D. Metabolic alkalosis

A. Respiratory acidosis.

Ch2.8PPT Summary Question 4

A 17-year-old boy is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit after surgery. The teen requires debridement of a wound on his sacrum (triangular bone at the base of the spine). His mother attributes this to difficulty in repositioning him because of his size. He has been in a persistent vegetative state for almost 4 years after suffering a traumatic brain injury as a result of a self-inflicted gunshot to his head.

1. The sacral area is covered with which type of tissue?

A. Muscle

B. Neural

C. Epithelial

D. Connective

C. Epithelial

Ch2.9PPT Unit 1 The Cell - Case Study 1a

A 17-year-old boy is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit after surgery. The teen requires debridement of a wound on his sacrum (triangular bone at the base of the spine). His mother attributes this to difficulty in repositioning him because of his size. He has been in a persistent vegetative state for almost 4 years after suffering a traumatic brain injury as a result of a self-inflicted gunshot to his head

2. A large portion of the area is removed because of ischemia and cell death. The teen suffers from tissue.

A. apoptosis.

B. necrosis.

C. catabolism.

D. metabolism

B. necrosis

Ch2.10PPT Unit 1 The Cell - Case Study 1b

An 86-year-old frail woman is admitted to the hospital for monitoring after sustaining a concussion due to a fall in the patient's home. The nurse performs the admission assessment on the patient.

The nurse notices that the patient has generalized deteriorated muscle mass and decreased strength in the extremities. This condition is called

A. senescence.

B. autophagy.

C. apoptosis.

D. sarcopenia.

D. sarcopenia

Ch2.11PPT Unit 1 The Cell - Case Study 2a

An 86-year-old frail woman is admitted to the hospital for monitoring after sustaining a concussion due to a fall in the patient's home. The nurse performs the admission assessment on the patient.

The patient dies from an aneurysm and the nurse assesses the changes occurring in the patient's body immediately after death. The nurse notices that the patient's lower legs are turning purple. This is referred to as.

A. algor mortis.

B. livor mortis.

C. rigor mortis.

D. postmortem autolysis

B. livor mortis

Ch2.12PPT Unit 1 The Cell - Case Study 2b

When considering water balance, which statement demonstrates the correct balance?

A. Isotonic fluids cause increased cellular swelling.

B. Hypertonic fluid causes increased cellular swelling.

C. Hypotonic fluid causes cellular swelling.

D. Hypernatremia causes cellular swelling.

C. Hypotonic fluid causes cellular swelling.

Hypotonic extracellular fluid (ECF) causes intracellular water gain and swelling. When the ECF is hypotonic, water moves from the intravascular space to the interstitial space, across the cell membrane, and into the cell. This action causes the cell to swell. An isotonic solution is equal to the plasma in concentration of solute molecules. Therefore no net water will move because equilibrium exists. The cell size is unchanged. A hypertonic fluid has excessive solute; therefore water will leave the cell and move into the vascular space to help balance this excess. Water leaving the cell results in cell shrinkage. Hypernatremia can occur with an acute gain in sodium or a loss of water, but generally it does not cause cellular swelling.

Ch03.1

Which statement is true regarding hyperchloremia?

A. Occurs with a deficit of sodium

B. Occurs with an excess of bicarbonate

C. Has specific symptoms such as thirst

D. Requires treatment of the underlying disorder

D. Requires treatment of the underlying disorder.

Hyperchloremia (too much chloride) is usually related to an underlying disorder, and therefore treatment is centered on the underlying disorder. Because chloride usually follows sodium, this condition usually occurs with an increase in sodium and a deficit of bicarbonate. Normally, neither specific symptoms are observed nor treatments are available for chloride excess.

Ch03.2

Which statement is true regarding hyponatremia?

A. Is commonly caused by inadequate sodium intake

B. Can occur with a decrease in total body water (TBW)

C. Never occurs with burns, vomiting, or diarrhea

D. Occurs when sodium drops below 135 mEq/L

D. Occurs when sodium drops below 135 mEq/L

Hyponatremia occurs when the serum sodium drops below 135 mEq/L. It is the most common electrolyte disorder in individuals who are hospitalized. Although inadequate sodium intake can cause hyponatremia, it is uncommon. It can also occur with an increase in TBW or as a result of burns, vomiting, diarrhea, or gastrointestinal suctioning.

Ch03.3

Which statement is true regarding potassium balance?

A. Potassium is the major extracellular electrolyte.

B. During acidosis, potassium shifts into the cell.

C. Aldosterone is secreted when potassium is decreased.

D. Insulin causes the movement of potassium into the cell.

D. Insulin causes the movement of potassium into the cell.

Insulin causes movement of potassium into the cell and is one of the treatments for hyperkalemia. Potassium balance is especially significant in the treatment of conditions requiring insulin administration, such as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1). Potassium is the major intracellular electrolyte and maintains the osmotic balance of the intracellular fluid (ICF) space. During acidosis, potassium is shifted out of the cell in exchange for hydrogen ions. Aldosterone is secreted when potassium is elevated,

resulting in the excretion of potassium by the kidneys.

Ch03.4

Which statement is true regarding hypokalemia?

A. Hypokalemia occurs when the serum level is below 45 mEq/L.

B. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis.

C. Dietary causes of hypokalemia are common.

D. Diuretics do not cause hypokalemia.

B. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis.

Hypokalemia is low potassium. Therefore hypokalemia is defined as a serum level less than 3.5 mEq/L. It is often caused by diuretics. Diabetic ketoacidosis does cause hypokalemia. Potassium is shifted out of the cell in exchange for hydrogen and then excreted. The serum level may remain within a normal range, but then when insulin is administered, potassium is shifted back into the cells and a deficit occurs. Potassium balance is especially significant in the treatment of conditions requiring insulin administration, such as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1). Dietary causes are uncommon.

Ch03.5

Hypernatremia is defined as levels above

A. 145 mEq/L

B. 5.0 mEq/L

C. 105 mEq/L

D. 9.0 mg/dL

A. 145 mEq/L

Hypernatremia is defined as serum levels above 145 mEq/L. Hyperkalemia is defined as serum levels above 5.0 mEq/L, and hyperchloremia is defined as serum levels above 105 mEq/L. Hypocalcemia occurs when serum calcium concentrations are less than 9.0 mg/dL.

Ch03.6

Which statement is true regarding magnesium?

A. Hypomagnesemia occurs with a concentration greater than 2.5 mEq/L.

B. Magnesium is a major extracellular cation.

C. Thirty percent is stored in the muscle and bone.

D. Symptoms of hypomagnesemia include weakness and depression.

D. Symptoms of hypomagnesemia include weakness and depression.

Symptoms of low magnesium include weakness, tetany, increased reflexes, depression, ataxia, convulsions, and irritability. Magnesium level is normal when between 1.5 and 3.0 mEq/L and is a major intracellular cation. Thirty percent is stored in the cells, with 40% to 60% stored in the bones and muscle.

Ch03.7

Which statement describes acidemia?

A. State in which the pH of arterial blood is greater than 7.45

B. State in which the pH of arterial blood is less than 7.35

C. Systemic decrease in hydrogen ion concentration

D. Systemic excess of base

B. State in which the pH of arterial blood is less than 7.35

Acidemia is a state in which the pH of arterial blood is less than 7.35. Alkalemia is a state in which the pH of arterial blood is greater than 7.45. A systemic increase in hydrogen ion concentration or loss of base is termed acidosis. A systemic decrease in hydrogen ion concentration or an excess of base is termed alkalosis.

Ch03.8

Common causes of edema formation (increased filtration of fluid from capillaries and lymph into

surrounding tissues) include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

B. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure

C. Increased capillary membrane permeability

D. Lymphatic obstruction

E. Sodium retention

B. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure

C. Increased capillary membrane permeability

D. Lymphatic obstruction

E. Sodium retention

The five common causes of increased edema are: (1) increased capillary hydrostatic pressure, (2)

decreased capillary oncotic pressure, (3) increased capillary membrane permeability, (4) lymphatic

obstruction, and (5) sodium retention.

Ch03.9

Which are clinical manifestations of hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.)

A. Decreased insulin secretion

B. Impaired renal function

C. Decreased neuromuscular excitability

D. Increased contractility of skeletal muscle

A. Decreased insulin secretion

B. Impaired renal function

C. Decreased neuromuscular excitability

Carbohydrate metabolism is affected by depressing insulin secretion and alters hepatic and skeletal muscle glycogen synthesis. Renal function may be impaired with a decreased ability to concentrate urine, and renal tubular atrophy and fibrosis may occur. Neuromuscular excitability is decreased causing skeletal muscle weakness, smooth muscle atony, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia

causes the skeletal muscle to be weak.

Ch03.10

Which treatments are appropriate for hyperkalemia? (Select all that apply.)

A. Calcium gluconate

B. Treating the contributing cause

C. Glucagon

D. Buffered solutions

A. Calcium gluconate

B. Treating the contributing cause

D. Buffered solutions

Calcium gluconate, treating the contributing cause, and buffered solutions are all appropriate treatments. Calcium gluconate can be administered to restore normal neuromuscular irritability when

serum potassium levels are dangerously high. Glucose, which readily stimulates insulin secretion, or the administration of glucose and insulin for those with diabetes, facilitates cellular entry of potassium. Buffered solutions correct metabolic acidosis and lower serum potassium. Glucagon is administered to treat beta-blocker overdose or hypoglycemia.

Ch03.11

Which term describes the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) subunit of one deoxyribose molecule, one

phosphate group, and one base?

A. Polypeptide

B. Double helix

C. Nucleotide

D. Codon

C. Nucleotide

A nucleotide consists of one deoxyribose molecule, one phosphate group, and one base. A polypeptide is a chain of proteins. The double helix is the twisted staircase presentation

of DNA that was proposed by Watson-Crick. A codon is a triplet of amino acids.

Ch04.1

Which statement is true regarding termination codons?

A. Eighty codons are possible.

B. Three codons signal the end of a gene.

C. Seventy codons specify amino acids.

D. Each amino acid has one codon.

B. Three codons signal the end of a gene.

Three codons signal the end of a gene, and they are called stop or nonsense codons.

Ch04.2

Which statement describes the function of DNA polymerase?

A. Synthesizes ribonucleic acid (RNA) from the DNA template

B. Synthesizes a polypeptide

C. Performs base pairing in replication

D. Splits DNA molecules

C. Performs base pairing in replication

The function of DNA polymerase is to assist with base pairing when replicating DNA. This enzyme travels along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotides to the free end of the new strand. It also proofreads. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from DNA. Translation is the formation of a polypeptide from RNA. DNA polymerase does not split DNA molecules.

Ch04.3

Which statement is true regarding base pairs?

A. Adenine pairs with guanine.

B. Guanine pairs with thymine.

C. Cytosine pairs with adenine.

D. Uracil pairs with adenine.

D. Uracil pairs with adenine.

Uracil is structurally similar to thymine. Therefore the correct base pairs are adenine with thymine, guanine with cytosine, and uracil with adenine.

Ch04.4

Which term describes the sequence for the beginning of a gene?

A. Intron

B. Exon

C. Promoter site

D. Anticodon

C. Promoter site

Transcription of a gene begins when an enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to a promoter site on the DNA. A promoter site is a sequence of DNA that specifies the beginning of a gene. Many of the RNA sequences are removed, and the remaining sequences are spliced together to form the functional messenger RNA (mRNA) that will migrate to the cytoplasm. The excised sequences are called introns, and the sequences that are left to code for proteins are called exons. The anticodon is the sequence of three nucleotides that undergo complementary base pairing in translation.

Ch04.5

Which statement is true regarding chromosomes?

A. There are three cell types.

B. The somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes.

C. Gametes are diploid cells.

D. Diploid cells are formed through meiosis.

B. The somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes.

There are two cell types: somatic and gametes. Somatic cells are those that are not gametes (sperm and eggs). They have 46 chromosomes in the nucleus. These are also considered diploid cells. The gametes are haploid cells and have only 23 chromosomes. They are formed from diploid cells through meiosis.

Ch04.6

Which term describes a cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes?

A. Aneuploid

B. Monosomy

C. Trisomy

D. Tetraploidy

A. Aneuploid

The term aneuploid means that the cell does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes. Monosomy is the presence of only one copy of a given chromosome in a cell. Trisomy is the presence of three copies of a chromosome. Tetraploidy is a cell that contains 92 chromosomes.

Ch04.7

Which term describes an allele with an observable effect?

A. Homozygous

B. Heterozygous

C. Dominant

D. Recessive

C. Dominant

Dominant alleles have effects that are observable. Homozygous is when two alleles at a locus are identical. Heterozygous is when the two alleles at a locus are different. Recessive alleles may be hidden.

Ch04.8

Which statement is true regarding autosomal dominant gene transmission?

A. The affected parent transmits the gene to one-half of his or her children.

B. The affected gene is found in males only.

C. Generations are skipped for transmission.

D. Females will transmit the disease more often than males.

A. The affected parent transmits the gene to one-half of his or her children.

The affected parent will transmit the trait to (approximately) one-half of his or her children; in each match, a 50% chance exists that either a normal gene or an affected gene will be

transmitted to the child. The affected gene is found equally in males and females, bothsexes transmit the trait equally, and no skipping of generations occurs.

Ch04.9

Which statement is true regarding autosomal recessive inheritance?

A. Parents will always display the trait.

B. Approximately 50% of children will display the trait.

C. Males and females are equally affected.

D. An individual must be heterozygous to display a recessive trait.

C. Males and females are equally affected.

Males and females are equally affected by autosomal recessive traits. Generally, parents will not display the trait; that is, they are heterozygous themselves, but each will pass the

recessive trait to 25% of their children. The child must be homozygous for the trait to express the recessive trait.

Ch04.10

Which statements are true regarding protein synthesis? (Select all that apply.)

A. Protein synthesis takes place in the cytoplasm.

B. DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm.

C. Protein formation involves transcription and translation.

D. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) mediates transcription and translation processes.

A. Protein synthesis takes place in the cytoplasm.

C. Protein formation involves transcription and translation.

D. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) mediates transcription and translation processes.

Protein synthesis takes place in the cytoplasm, whereas DNA replication takes place in the nucleus. Protein formation involves transcription and translation. Both transcription and translation are mediated by ribonucleic acid (RNA).

Ch04.11

What is the definition of incidence rate?

A. Number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific period, divided by the

number of individuals in the population

B. Proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time

C. The effect of a specific risk factor

D. Variation is caused by the multiple effects of genes

A. Number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific period, divided by the number of individuals in the population

The number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific period of time (typically 1 year), divided by the number of individuals in the population, is the incidence rate. The proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time is the prevalence rate. The effect of a specific risk factor is the relative risk. Polygenic genes cause variation.

Ch05.1

Which information is correct regarding DNA polymerase? DNA polymerase functions to

A. signal the end of a gene.

B. pull apart a portion of a DNA strand.

C. add the correct nucleotides to a DNA strand.

D. provide a template for the sequence of mRNA nucleotides.

C. add the correct nucleotides to a DNA strand

Ch4.1PPT Genes and Genetic Diseases: Replication

At what site does protein synthesis occur? The site of protein synthesis is the

A. codon.

B. intron.

C. ribosome.

D. anticodon.

C. add the correct nucleotides to a DNA strand.

Ch4.2PPT Genes and Genetic Diseases: Translation

A female has one X chromosome. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

A. Trisomy X syndrome

B. Klinefelter syndrome

C. Fragile X syndrome

D. Turner syndrome

D. Turner syndrome

Ch4.3PPT Sex Chromosome Aneuploidy

Which information indicates that the nurse has a good understanding of X-linked recessive inheritance?

A. The gene is passed from an affected father to all of his daughters.

B. The trait is observed significantly more often in females than in males.

C. Males are said to be heterozygous for the X chromosome.

D. A sex-limited trait is one that occurs significantly more often in one sex than in the other.

A. The gene is passed from an affected father to all of his daughters.

Ch4.4PPT X-linked Inheritance

Which statement is true regarding the risks of developing a disease?

A. Empiric risks are based on assumptions.

B. Recurrence risk is higher if more than one family member is affected.

C. An individual below the threshold of liability for a disease will have the disease.

D. The recurrence risk for disease usually increases rapidly in more remotely related relatives.

B. Recurrence risk is higher if more than one family member is affected.

Recurrence risk is higher if more than one family member is affected and usually decreases rapidly in more remotely related relatives. Empiric risks are based on observation. For diseases that have a threshold of liability, an individual usually does not have the disease below the threshold of liability.

Ch05.2

Which statement describes a monozygotic twin?

A. Twins who share very few traits

B. Twins who share all traits

C. Twins who form from double ovulation

D. Twins whose rates vary among populations

B. Twins who share all traits

Monozygotic twins divide from one embryo and actually share traits. They are natural clones. Twins from double ovulation are dizygotic and may not share traits. Monozygotic twins have the same rate across populations. Dizygotic or fraternal rates vary among

populations.

Ch05.3

Which statement regarding coronary heart disease is true?

A. It is the leading killer of Americans.

B. Atherosclerosis causes widening of the blood vessels.

C. CHD is more common in women.

D. The relative risk for CHD does not increase with relatives affected.

A. It is the leading killer of Americans.

Coronary heart disease is the leading killer of Americans. Narrowing of blood vessels occurs as a result of atherosclerosis. Men are more commonly affected. Relative risk

increases when two or more relatives are affected before the age 55 years.

Ch05.4

Which statement regarding hypertension is true?

A. Systemic hypertension is observed in less than 5% of populations.

B. Environmental factors do not cause hypertension.

C. One of the most important factors affecting blood pressure is sodium intake.

D. A 100% correlation exists among family members and blood pressure.

C. One of the most important factors affecting blood pressure is sodium intake.

Sodium intake, obesity, decreased physical activity, and psychosocial stress are important environmental risk factors for obesity. Systemic hypertension affects approximately 25% to 30% of the population. Only a 20% to 40% correlation exists among family members.

Ch05.5

Which gene is linked with breast cancer?

A. BRCA1

B. APC

C. HLA II

D. IDDM

A. BRCA1

BRCA1 is located on chromosome 17, and BRCA2 is located on chromosome 13. If women inherit these genes, then their lifetime risk of getting breast cancer increases by 50% to 80%. The APC gene is associated with colon cancer. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) II is associated with diabetes. IDDM stands for insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.

Ch05.6

Which statement is true regarding type II diabetes?

A. Type II diabetes accounts for fewer than 10% of all cases of diabetes.

B. Pancreatic insulin is not produced.

C. These individuals experience insulin resistance.

D. Type II diabetes is less common among obese persons.

C. These individuals experience insulin resistance.

Type II diabetes is responsible for more than 90% of all cases of diabetes. Usually people who develop type II diabetes are older than 40 years of age and are obese. They produce

insulin and have insulin resistance.

Ch05.7

Which statement is true regarding Alzheimer disease?

A. Alzheimer disease affects 40% of the population older than 65 years of age.

B. Alzheimer disease is characterized by progressive dementia and memory loss.

C. It has one gene locus.

D. Antidiuretic hormone is a key factor.

B. Alzheimer disease is characterized by progressive dementia and memory

loss.

Alzheimer disease affects approximately 5% to 10% of the population, age 65 years and older. It is characterized by progressive dementia and memory loss. There are multiple gene loci with three being identified. ADH is aldehyde dehydrogenase, which is responsible for alcohol metabolism.

Ch05.8

Which are congenital diseases in infants? (Select all that apply.)

A. Cleft lip

B. Clubfoot

C. Hydrocephaly

D. Obesity

A. Cleft lip

B. Clubfoot

C. Hydrocephaly

Although people are born with factors that may cause obesity, infants are not born with this condition present. All of the other choices are traits that are present at birth.

Ch05.9

Which statement is true regarding alcoholism? (Select all that apply.)

A. Alcoholism is more prevalent in females than males.

B. Individuals with the ALDH2*2 gene are less likely to become alcoholics.

C. Alcoholism clusters in families.

D. Alcoholism requires an environmental component.

B. Individuals with the ALDH2*2 gene are less likely to become alcoholics.

C. Alcoholism clusters in families.

D. Alcoholism requires an environmental component.

An allele of the ALDH2 gene (ALDH2*2) results in excessive accumulation of acetaldehyde and thus in facial flushing, nausea, palpitations, and lightheadedness. Because of these unpleasant effects,

individuals who have the ALDH2*2 allele are much less likely to become alcoholics. More than 100 studies have shown that alcoholism clusters in families. Genes increase one's susceptibility to alcoholism, which means that alcoholism requires an environmental component, regardless of genetic constitution. Alcoholism is diagnosed in approximately 10% of adult males and 3% to 5% of adult females in the United States.

Ch05.10

Which gene is often seen in retinoblastoma?

A. MLH1

B. RB1

C. BRCA1

D. BRCA2

B. RB1

Hypermethylation of the promoter region on the RB1 gene is often seen in retinoblastoma. An inherited form of colon cancer is related to methylation of the promoter region of the MLH1 gene. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are observed in some cases of inherited breast cancer.

Ch06.1

Which information is correct regarding relative risk? Relative risk indicates the

A. number of new cases of a disease in a specific time period.

B. proportion of a population with a disease at one time point.

C. chance of developing a disease relative to an exposure.

D. ability of a causative factor to produce a disease.

C. chance of developing a disease relative to an exposure

Ch5.1PPT Analysis of Risk Factors

Recurrence risk in multifactorial diseases is

A. higher if more than one family member is affected.

B. lower if the disease is more severe in the proband.

C. higher if the proband is the more commonly affected sex.

D. rapidly increased when more distant relatives are affected.

A. higher if more than one family member is affected

Ch5.2PPT Recurrence Risks

Which statement made by the nurse indicates an accurate understanding of breast cancer?

A. "BRCA1 is on chromosome 13."

B. "If a woman has one affected first-degree relative, then her risk of developing breast cancer triples." 3. "Alterations in the kallikrein-kininsystem increases the risk for breast cancer."

C. "Alterations in the kallikrein-kinin system increases the risk for breast cancer."

D. "Women who inherit a mutation in BRCA2 experience a 50% to 80% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer."

D. "Women who inherit a mutation in BRCA2 experience a 50% to 80% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer."

Ch5.3PPT Multifactorial Disorders in the Adult Population

Type 2 diabetes

A. is caused by an absence of insulin.

B. usually involves a gene identified as HLA.

C. is commonly associated with HLA associations or autoantibodies.

D. is often treated with lifestyle modification including diet and exercise.

D. is often treated with lifestyle modification including diet and exercise.

Ch5.4PPT Multifactorial Disorders in the Adult Population

5-Azacytidine has been used as a therapeutic drug in the treatment of which disease process?

A. Leukemia

B. Brain cancer

C. Benign neoplasm

D. Type II diabetes

A. Leukemia

5-Azacytidine, a demethylating agent, has been used as a therapeutic drug in the treatment of leukemia and myelodysplastic syndrome. 5-Azacytidine is not a therapeutic drug used in the treatment of brain cancer, benign neoplasm, or type II diabetes.

Ch06.2

Which characteristic supports the diagnosis of Angelman syndrome?

A. Short stature, hypotonia, obesity

B. Large size, creases on the earlobe, large tongue

C. Growth retardation, leg length discrepancy, small face

D. Severe mental retardation, seizures, ataxia

D. Severe mental retardation, seizures, ataxia.

Angelman syndrome is characterized by severe mental retardation, seizures, and ataxia. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by short stature, hypotonia, and obesity. Beckwith-

Wiedemann syndrome is characterized by large size for gestational age, creases on the earlobe, and a large tongue. Russel-Silver syndrome is characterized by growth retardation, leg length discrepancy, and a small, triangular-shaped face.

Ch06.3

Children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome are at risk for the development of

A. Wilms tumor.

B. rectal cancer.

C. diabetes.

D. pulmonary fibrosis.

A. Wilms tumor.

Children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome are at an increased risk for the development of Wilms tumor or hepatoblastoma. Rectal cancer, diabetes, and pulmonary fibrosis are not associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

Ch06.4

Which is true regarding epigenetic modifications?

A. They alter gene expression by modifying DNA.

B. They can modulate behavior later in life.

C. They occur only at the time of birth.

D. They at best only involve benign processes.

B. They can modulate behavior later in life.

Exposure to stress early in life can modulate behavior in adulthood. Epigenetic processes can help store information about the environment, and these relevant epigenetic modifications can modulate behavior later in life.

Ch06.5

Which describe epigenetic mechanisms?

A. DNA methylation, histone modifications, RNA-based modifications

B. RNA methylation, protease modifications, DNA-based modifications

C. Genetic disruption, protease modifications, DNA-based modifications

D. Histone modification, DNA-based modifications, RNA methylation

A. DNA methylation, histone modifications, RNA-based modifications.

DNA methylation, histone modifications, RNA-based modifications are epigenetic

mechanisms. RNA methylation and protease modifications are not. Additionally, DNA-based modifications although important are not mechanisms of epigenetics.

Ch06.6

Which statement is correct regarding the epigenetic screening of cancer?

A. Epigenetic screening is no use to cancer detection.

B. Epigenetic screening involves invasive procedures.

C. This is a very expensive alternative to current testing.

D. It can complement current detection methods.

D. It can complement current detection methods.

The common finding of epigenetic alteration in cancerous tissue raises the possibly that epigenetic screening approaches could complement or even replace existing early-detection methods. In some cases, epigenetic screening could be done using bodily fluids, such as urine or sputum, eliminating the need for the more invasive, costly, and risky strategies currently in place.

Ch06.7

Which features are associated with Prader-Willi syndrome? (Select all that apply.)

A. Short stature

B. Small hands and feet

D. Hypogonadism

E. Mild mental retardation

A. Short stature

B. Small hands and feet

D. Hypogonadism

E. Mild mental retardation

The following are features of a person with Prader-Willi syndrome: short stature, hypotonia, small hands and feet, obesity, hypogonadism, and mild-to-moderate retardation.

Ch06.8

Which type of cancer is targeted in histone deacetylase inhibitor (HDAC) therapy? (Select all that apply.)

A. Breast

B. Prostate

C. Pancreas

D. Gastric

A. Breast

B. Prostate

C. Pancreas

Histone deacetylase inhibitors (HDACs) are used to treat cancers of the breast, prostate, and pancreas. They have also been used to treat some forms of leukemia and lymphoma that are characterized by transcriptional repression. Gastric cancer is not treated with HDACs.

Ch06.9

Which steps are involved in chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)? (Select all that apply.)

A. Cross-linking DNA-bound proteins

B. Selecting for proteins of interest

C. Washing away proteins

D. Duplicating nonprotein bound DNA

A. Cross-linking DNA-bound proteins

B. Selecting for proteins of interest

C. Washing away proteins

The steps involved in chromatin immunoprecipitation are cross-linking DNA-bound proteins to genomic regions to which they are attached; lysing DNA regions that are not protein-bound; selecting for proteins of interest; capturing protein DNA-complexes; removing protein DNA cross links and wash away proteins; sequence DNA fragments to profile the portion of genome that was bound by the protein of interest; and repeat to characterize DNAs bound to other proteins of interest.

Ch06.10

Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier?

A. Antibacterial fatty acids

B. Lysozymes in tears

C. Epithelial cells

D. Earwax

C. Epithelial cells

Epithelial cells form tight junctions that are a physical barrier to entry for organisms. Sebaceous glands in the skin secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids. Earwax and lysozymes in tears are examples of biochemical secretions that trap potential disease-causing microorganisms.

Ch07.1

Which statement is most correct regarding miRNAs?

A. result from the attachment of a methyl group to a cytosine base, followed by a guanine base.

B. enhance X-inactivation, silencing genes on the X chromosome.

C. become the hereditary transmission of epigenetic changes to successive generations.

D. are short nucleotides derived from introns of protein-coding genes

D. are short nucleotides derived from introns of protein-coding genes.

Ch6.1PPT Epigenetics and Disease - Microribonucleic Acids

Which pathophysiologic process is occurring in a person with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A. Missing chromosome 15

B. Missing gene product

C. Downregulation of IGF2

D. Extra copies of active IGF2

D. Extra copies of active IGF2

Ch6.2PPT Epigenetics and Disease - Diseases from Abnormal Imprinting Patterns

Which statement by the nurse indicates an accurate understanding of epigenetics and cancer?

A."Hypomethylation of the promoter region of the RB1 gene is often observed in retinoblastoma."

B."Hypomethylation increases as tumors progress from benign neoplasms to malignancy."

C."Hypomethylation of specific subgroups of miRNAs is associated with tumorigenesis."

D."Hypomethylation occurs when HDAC inhibitors are administered for cancer."

B."Hypomethylation increases as tumors progress from benign neoplasms to malignancy."

Ch6.3PPT Epigenetics and Cancer

A 2-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting after feedings. The child is diagnosed with pyloric stenosis.

This disease does not follow the inheritance patterns of single-gene disease. This type of disease is considered to be

A. multifactorial.

B. congenital.

C. following a bell-shaped distribution model.

D. following a liability of threshold model.

D. following a liability of threshold model.

Ch6.4PPT Unit II: Genes and Gene-Environment Interaction Case Study 1a

A 2-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting after feedings. The child is diagnosed with pyloric stenosis.

Although the mother is staying with the child after surgical correction, her husband comes to visit and brings their other child. This child has Prader-Willi syndrome. This disease is an example of

A. imprinting.

B. trisomy.

C. hypermethylation.

D. nondisjunction

A. imprinting

Ch6.4PPT Unit II: Genes and Gene-Environment Interaction Case Study 1b

A mother gives birth to an infant diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. The mother-baby nurse teaches the new mother and father about the specifics of this syndrome.

Which is a common characteristic of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A. Omphalocele

B. Leg-length discrepancy

C. Hyperglycemia

D. Obesity

A. Omphalocele

Ch6.5PPT Unit II: Genes and Gene-Environment Interaction Case Study 2a

A mother gives birth to an infant diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. The mother-baby nurse teaches the new mother and father about the specifics of this syndrome.

The infant is at an increased risk for which disorder?

A. Mental retardation

B. Wilms tumor

C. Triangular-shaped face

D. Hypotonia

B. Wilms tumor

Ch6.6PPT Unit II: Genes and Gene-Environment Interaction Case Study 2b

Which statement is true regarding the inflammatory response?

A. Inflammatory response is the third line of defense.

B. Inflammatory response relies on cellular components only.

C. Inflammatory response generates a nonspecific response

D. Inflammatory response occurs in nonvascular tissue.

C. Inflammatory response generates a nonspecific response.

The inflammatory response is the second line of defense. It occurs at the site of tissue injury and generates a nonspecific response that involves cellular and chemical components. The inflammatory response occurs in tissues with a blood supply (vascularized).

Ch07.2

Which complement factor is considered an anaphylatoxin?

A. C3a

B. C1

C. C7

D. C9

A. C3a

C3a, C5a, and C4a are anaphylatoxins. They can induce the rapid degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine.

Ch07.3

Which receptor is expressed on macrophages and facilitates recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens?

A. Complement receptors

B. Scavenger receptors

C. Toll-like receptors

D. Pattern recognition receptors

B. Scavenger receptors

The scavenger receptors are primarily expressed on macrophages and facilitate recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens. Complement receptors recognize a variety of fragments produced through activation of the complement system. Toll-like receptors are expressed on the surface of cells, including epithelial, mast, neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and lymphocytes. They recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns or stressed host cells. Pattern recognition receptors recognize patterns of infectious molecules. These receptors are found on cells involved in innate resistance.

Ch07.4

Which statement regarding mast cells is true?

A. Histamine causes vasoconstriction.

B. Mast cells are found only in blood vessels.

C. Snake bites, bee venoms, and toxins may cause activation.

D. Mast cells are not involved in allergic reactions.

C. Snake bites, bee venoms, and toxins may cause activation.

A number of things cause the activation of mast cells, including physical injury, chemical agents (including toxins, bee venom, and snake bites), immunologic means, and activation of an inflammatory response. Histamine is released from mast cells and causes vasodilation. Mast cells are found in loose connective tissue close to blood vessels. Mast cells are involved in initiating many allergic reactions.

Ch07.5