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74 Terms

1
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the minimum hgb conc in a finger stick from a male donor

13.5 g/dL

2
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the majority of the iron in an adult is found as a constituent of..

hemoglobin

3
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which of the following is the most appropriate organism and media combination

CIN-yersinia enterocolitica

4
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cells known to be actively phagocytic include

neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

5
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an acceptable storage temp for RBC cells frozen is

-80C

6
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in the normal adult, the spleen acts as a site for

removal of imperfect and aging cells

7
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transportation of 60-75% of the plasma cholesterol is performed by

LDL

8
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which of the following specimen types is considered to be the most sensitive for the recovery of brucella in cases of chronic infection

bone marrow

9
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normal serum constituents that can rapidly increase during infection, injury, or trauma are referred to as

acute phase reactants 

10
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upon inspection, a unit of apheresis platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:

quarantine for gram stain and culture

11
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a characteristic morphologic feature in hemoglobin C disease is:

target cells

12
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the order of migration in serum protein electrophoresis at pH 8.6, beginning with the fastest migration is as follows:

albumin, alpha-1 globulin, alpha 2 globulin, beta globulin, and gamma globulin 

13
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a child is bitten on the arm by their sibling, and the wound culture grows a slender gram negative bacilli with these characteristics:

growth on SBA, colonies that pit the agar

colony smells like bleach 

catalase negative 

oxidase positive

eikenella corrodens 

14
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after a penicillin injection a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting, and hives. This reaction is mediated by…

IgE

15
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which of the following antibodies is usually clinically insignificant

Anti-P1

16
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autoimmune hemolytic anemia is often a complication of

CLL

17
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metabolic acidosis is described as

a decrease in CO2 content and pCO2 with a decreased pH

18
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>100,000 CFU/mL of a gram negative bacilli are isolated on MAC from urine

Glucose:acid, gas produced

indole negative

urea positive 

TDA positive

H2S positive 

proteus mirabilis 

19
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a patient has received mouse mAb therapy, and shows a false positive reaction in the sandwich assay. This is due to:

the presence of human anti-mouse antibody activity

20
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6 unites of RBC are issued to the OR at 9am in a cooler, validated to maintain a temp of 1-10C for 2 hours. 40 mins later, the cooler containing the units of blood is returned to the blood bank as surgery was cancelled. What should be done with these units?

inspect units and establish that appropriate temp has been maintained 

21
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evidence of a hemolytic event is present in the peripheral blood smear when which of the following is seen

increased polychromasia

22
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given the below data, the patient’s creatinine clearance, in mL/min, is:

urine creatinine:90

serum creatinine: 0.90

patient’s total body surface: 1.73 

total urine volume in 24hrs: 1500 mL

104

23
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which nematode produces eggs with characteristic hyaline polar plugs at each end

trichuris trichiura

24
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the result of an anti-nuclear antibody test is a titer of 1:320 with a peripheral pattern. which set of data best correlate with these results 

anti-dsDNA

25
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cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are

lymphocytes

26
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which selective medium is used for the isolation of gram positive microorganisms

CNA

27
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which of the following is the correct storage temp for the component listed

fresh frozen plasma (-20C)

28
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in HELLP syndrome patients present with:

high blood pressure

29
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which of the following collection types should be performed to obtain a highly concentrated urine specimen

first morning 

30
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anti glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with this condition

goodpasture syndrome 

31
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which of the following organisms can grow in the small bowel and cause diarrhea in children, traveler’s diarrhea, or severe cholera like syndrome through the production of enterotoxins

E. coli

32
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according to AABB standards, what is the minimum hemoglobin level for an autologous donor

11 g/dL

33
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the RDW is elevated on a CDC report. the smear would show

anisocytosis

34
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the clarity of a urine specimen should be determined AFTER:

thorough mixing of the specimen

35
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which of the following is true of Graves disease

the goiter is firm rather than rubbery

36
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which of the following would best differentiate streptococcus agalactiae from streptococcus pyogenes

hydrolysis of sodium hippurate 

37
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these results are obtained on a blood donor sample at IS:

anti-A: 0

anti-B: 0

A1 cells: 4+

B cells: 4+

anti-D: 0

Rh control: 0

before labeling blood components from this donation, what additional testing must be done

perform weak D testing on donor RBCs

38
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which of the following values is calculated from the RBC indices in an automated hematology analyzer

hematocrit 

39
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the presence of which of the following is associated with bacterial vaginosis

clue cells

40
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which condition has the highest stringency for DNA probe hybridization

high temp, low salt conc

41
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an isolate on CHOC agar from a patient with epiglottitis is suggestive of Haemophilus sp. Additional testing shows that the isolate required NAD for growth and is nonhemolytic. The organism is most likely Haemophilus…

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

42
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given the serologic reactions shown in this table, what is the most likely A subgroup

anti-A: 2+ mf

anti-B:0

anti-A,B:2+mf

A1 cells: 1+

B cells: 4+

O cells: 0

A3

43
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a patient has been taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain. Which one of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in this patient

PFA-100

44
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a positive amine or “whiff” test on a vaginal secretion most likely indicates 

bacterial vaginosis 

45
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A 28year old man has months of intermittent lower back pain. The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis. Which of the following lab studies would support this diagnosis 

positive HLA-B27 antigen test 

46
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what causes glander like infection

burkholderia pseudomallei 

47
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a patient’s red cell type is as shown:

pos for anti-C, anti-D, anti-E, anti-c, and anti-e

which is the most probable genotype

R1R2

48
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which of the following is used for staining reticulocytes

new methylene blue

49
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the presence of rice bodies in a synovial fluid is strongly associated with

rheumatoid arthritis

50
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the RDW is elevated on a CBC report. the smear would show

anisocytosis

51
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a urine specimen yields positive results for glucose and protein, but is otherwise unremarkable. these results likely indicate the patient has

diabetes mellitus 

52
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after a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress vomiting, and hives. this reaction is primarily mediated by 

IgE

53
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which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate

Peptostreptococcus anerobius

54
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transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC

cryoprecipitated AHF

55
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elevation of the total white cell count above 11Ă— 10^9/L is termed

leukocytosis

56
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which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine

calcium oxalate

57
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which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease

selective IgA deficiency

58
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the lab is considering adoption of rapid sensitive “stand alone” method that detects Clostridioides difficile toxins A and B. Which one of the following testing methods will provide this 

NAAT

59
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a group A, Rh-pos infant of a group O, Rh-pos mother has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test and a moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is 

ABO incompatibility 

60
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which cells are involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions

basophils

61
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patients that produce more than 3000mL of urine in a 24 hour period are described as having

polyuria 

62
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bone marrow transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for which antigen system

HLA

63
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which test can be used to diagnose infection and confirm eradication of Helicobacter pylori

urea breath test

64
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in cases where antepartum RhIG has been administered and anti-D is detected in the mother’s serum at delivery, what lab studies may help determine if the anti-D is from the antepartum RhIG, or due to maternal alloimmunization

determine antibody titer of maternal anti-D

65
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a deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following

increased risk of thrombosis

66
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a double sequential enzyme reaction employing glucose oxidase and peroxidase is used to measure which of the following urinary analytes by repeat test strip 

glucose 

67
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biological false positive VDRL reactions are frequently encountered in patients with

lupus erythematosus

68
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cerebrospinal fluid test results that are most consistent with viral meningitis include 

lymphocytes predominant 

69
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a drug induced immune hemolytic anemia caused by a drug independent antibody would have which of the following results

negative DAT; positive antibody screen

70
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what is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia

factor V Leiden

71
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which of the following cells is most commonly associated with a non-clean-catch specimen and/or vaginal contamination

squamous epithelial cells 

72
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which of the following statements about immunoglobulins is true

IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules

73
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which of these specimen types is considered to be the most sensitive for the recovery of Brucella in cases of chronic infection

bone marrow

74
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a group B, Rh-negative patient has a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which of the following situations would occur

the weak D test and control would be positiveÂ