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732 Terms
1
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With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
Airplane, rotocraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
2
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With respect to certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?
Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea.
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With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, acrobatic.
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With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
5
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A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 36-year old pilot in August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges and of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
August 31, 5 years later
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A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 51-year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
May 31, 2 years later
7
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For private pilot operations, a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42 year-old pilot on July 15, 2018, will expire at midnight on
July 31, 2020.
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You were 40 years old when you obtained a second-class medical certificate on March 15, 2018. For exercising private pilot privileges, when does your medical certificate expire?
March 31, 2020
9
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For private pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate is issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on
October 31, 5-years later.
10
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A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 19-year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on
August 31, 5-years later.
11
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The FAA BasicMed rule allows pilots to operate small aircraft on certain personal flights
using a driver's license instead of a medical certificate.
12
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Under the BasicMed rule, what flight operations may you conduct using a driver's license instead of a medical certificate?
You may operate an aircraft below 18,000 feet MSL at a maximum airspeed of 250 knots.
13
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What requirements must you meet to utilize the BasicMed rule?
You must have completed an approved medical education course within the previous 24 calendar months and a comprehensive medical exam from a physician within the previous 48 months.
14
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To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
24 calendar months.
15
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If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and offical sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
1929
16
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Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding
90 days
17
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To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must have made 3 takeoffs and 3 landing within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
category, class and type, if a type rating is required.
18
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The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane
must be to a full stop.
19
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The 3 takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
one hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.
20
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The definition of nighttime is
the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
21
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To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
22
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If a private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
August 31, two years later.
23
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Each private pilot is required to have
a biennial flight review.
24
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In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees.
25
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What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
26
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The pilot in command is required to hold a type of rating in which aircraft?
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
27
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What is the definition of a high performance airplane?
An airplane with an engine of more than 200hp.
28
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Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
29
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What is the definition of a complex airplane?
An airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps and a controllable-pitch propeller or FADEC
30
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In order to act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, you must
receive and log ground and flight instruction in a complex airplane.
31
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Where can the operating limitations for an aircraft be found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof.
32
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Which of the following are required to be carried in the aircraft during flight?
FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM).
33
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An annual inspection was performed on an aircraft June 13, 2018. When is the next annual inspection due?
June 30, 2019
34
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How long does an airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the Federal Aviation Regulations.
35
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In addition to a validated airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Operating limitations and registration certificate
36
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To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, you should refer to the
aircraft maintenance records
37
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What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Annual and 100 hour inspections
38
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An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
1359.6 hours
39
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A 100-hour inspection was due at 3303 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3300 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
3400 hours
40
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A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
3402.5 hours
41
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Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection is due no later than
September 30, 2016
42
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Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command.
43
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The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
owner or operator.
44
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The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
owner or operator.
45
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Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
Owner or operator.
46
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During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
The pilot in command.
47
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How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
48
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Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot before each flight?
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
49
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When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
When the ELT has been in use for more than one cumulative hour.
50
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When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
When 50% of their useful life expires.
51
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You discover inoperative equipment on an airplane that you are planning to fly. Under what conditions can you complete the flight under VFR?
The equipment is not required by FAR 91.205, an equipment list or KOEL, the VFR-day type certificate requirements, or an AD.
52
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Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive?
Aircraft maintenance records
53
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What should an owner or operator know about airworthiness directives (ADs)?
They are mandatory.
54
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May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive (AD)?
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
55
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Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
56
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Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
57
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What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance?
14 CFR 43.7.
58
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Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
Private or commercial pilot.
59
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Who is responsible for ensuring that airworthiness directives (ADs) are complied with?
Owner or operator.
60
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Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
61
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Excessively high engine temperature will
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
62
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If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
63
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One purpose of the dual-ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
improved engine performance.
64
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Float-type carburetors operate based on
the difference in pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
65
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The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
66
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During the runup at a high-elevation airport a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check, but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, which of the following would be the most logical initial action?
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
67
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While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
The fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean.
68
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Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Temperature between 20°F and 70°F and high humidity.
69
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The risk of carburetor ice is
high when the ambient temperature is between 20°F and 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
70
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If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
loss of RPM.
71
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Applying carburetor heat will
enrich the fuel/air mixture
72
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What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
The fuel/air mixture becomes richer
73
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Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
decrease engine performance.
74
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The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
a decrease in RPM then a gradual increase in RPM.
75
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With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
more susceptible to icing.
76
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If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
detonation.
77
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Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally
78
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Detonation may occur at high-power settings as
the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
79
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You suspect that your engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climbout after takeoff. Your initial corrective action would be to
lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
80
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The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air change in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
preignition.
81
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Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating
82
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What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
The next higher octane aviation gas.
83
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Filling the fuel tank after the last flight of the day is considered good operating procedure because this will
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
84
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For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
the circulation of lubricating oil.
85
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An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
the oil level being too low.
86
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What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
87
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What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
Enrichen the fuel mixture.
88
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How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
89
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Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
90
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What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
91
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A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to?
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
92
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Which preflight checks should you make on an airplane with full-authority digital engine control (FADEC)?
Verify proper operation of both ECUs as well as their back-up power sources.
93
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What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
94
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If it becomes necessary to hand-prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
be at the controls in the cockpit.
95
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To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
96
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Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
V/A
97
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Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
V/FE
98
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Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
V/LE
99
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V/NO is defined as the
maximum structural cruising speed.
100
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V/SO is defined as the
Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.