Bordetella pertussis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Anthrax, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium bovis, Mycobacterium leprae

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Last updated 5:25 PM on 3/11/26
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71 Terms

1
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Cystic Fibrosis is caused by a mutation in which specific protein?

The CFTR (CF transmembrane conductance regulator) chloride channel.

2
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What effect does a CFTR mutation have on the lung’s mucin layer?

It produces a thick, salty mucin layer.

3
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What is the Gram stain and morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Gram-negative rod.

4
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Does Pseudomona aeruginosa need oxygen to survive?

P. aeruginosa is a facultative aerobe. Meaning it can survive with or without oxygen.

5
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Which bacterial structure allows P. aeruginosa to bind to the upper respiratory tract (URT)?

Pili.

6
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In the lower respiratory tract (LRT), what does the P. aeruginosa CHO capsule bind to?

Mucin.

7
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What is the function of the enzyme elastase produced by P. aeruginosa?

It decreases elastin in lung tissue and blood vessel walls.

8
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How does P. aeruginosa elastase affect the host’s blood clotting?

It degrades clotting factors.

9
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What is the specific biochemical mechanism of P. aeruginosa Exotoxin A (ExoA)?

It causes ADPR of EF-2, similar to Diphtheria Toxin.

10
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To which host receptor does P. aeruginosa ExoA bind?

Low density lipoprotein receptor-related protein.

11
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What is the target of P. aeruginosa Exoenzyme S (ExoS) via the type 3 secretion system (T3SS)?

ADPR of G proteins.

12
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How does P. aeruginosa neuraminidase facilitate infection?

It cleaves sialic acid to expose host cell receptors.

13
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What is the physiological consequences of phospholipase production by P. aeruginosa?

It decreases lung surfactants, leading to alveolar collapse.

14
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What finding in a sweat test is indicative of Cystic fibrosis?

An increased level of chloride (Cl^-) because it can’t be reabsorbed.

15
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What does an increased level of immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) in the blood suggest in a newborn?

CF pancreatic disease causing blocked pancreatic ducts.

16
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Why is antibiotic resistance a significant problem for P. aeruginosa treatment?

Its capsule and LPS act as an intrinsic barrier.

17
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Which stage of Bordetella pertussis infection is the most contagious?

The catarrhal stage (weeks 0-2).

18
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During which stage of Pertussis is antibiotic treatment most effective at decreasing disease severity?

The catarrhal stage.

19
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What clinical sign defines the paroxysmal stage of Pertussis?

A rapid cough followed by a “whoop” sound (weeks 2-8).

20
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Why do antibiotics fail to reduce symptoms during the paroxysmal Pertussis?

The symptoms are caused by toxins, not the bacteria themselves.

21
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To which specific structure in the nasopharynx does Pertussis attach?

The cilia.

22
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What is teh function of Filamentous Hemagglutinin (FHA) in Pertussis pathogenesis?

It binds to ciliated cell and phagocytes.

23
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What is the biochemical effect of Pertussis Toxin (PT) on host cells?

It causes ADPR of Gi, leading to an increase cAMP.

24
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What is the typical duration of the Pertussis convalescent stage?

8 to 12 weeks.

25
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In inhalation anthrax, where do spored typically germinate within minutes?

In lung macrophages.

26
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What is the primary component of the human anthrax vaccine used in the US?

Protective Antigen (PA).

27
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Why is quarantine unnecessary for anthrax outbreaks?

There is no human-to-human transmission.

28
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What is the Gram stain-like morphology and xygen requirement of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Gram-positive like rod. It is an obligate aerobe, meaning it needs oxygen to survive.

29
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Which staining method is used to identify Mycobacterium species?

Acid-fast staining.

30
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Approximately what percentage of individuals with a latent TB infection (LTBI) will develop active disease?

5-10%

31
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Which immune cell releases IFN-γ to activate macrophages during a TB infection?

CD4+ T cells.

32
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What is a ‘Ghon complex’ in the context of tuberculosis?

Calcified scar tissue formed by tubercle maturation, visible on chest X-rays.

33
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What is the primary difference between primary TB and secondary TB?

Primary occurs upon initial infection, secondary is the reactivation of LTBI.

34
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In a TST (PPD) test, what does ‘induration’ specifically refer to?

A hard, raised area caused by macrophage and fibrin deposition.

35
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What size of induration is considered a positive TST result for a person with no risk factors?

>15mm.

36
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Why might an HIV patient show a negative PPD test despite having TB?

They may experience anergy (inability to mount an immune response).

37
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What is the primary advantage of the IGRA blood test over the TST for TB?

It works on BCG-vaccinated individuals without giving a false positive.

38
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Which species accounts for 80% of Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria (NTM) cases in the US?

M. avium compex (MAC).

39
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What is the primary reservoir for Mycobacterium bovis?

Cattle and other animals.

40
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How is Mycobacterium bovis most commonly spread to humans?

Consumption of unpasteurized milk or inhalation from animals.

41
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The standrad TB vaccine (BCG) is an attenuated strain of which organism?

Mycobacterium bovis.

42
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Which animal serves as a natural reservoir for Mycobacterium leprae in addition to humans?

Armadillos.

43
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Which structures are primarily affected by Mycobacterium leprae?

Skin, nerves, and mucous memebranes.

44
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What is the role of Type IV pili in Neisseria meningitidis pathogenesis?

Adherence to the nasopharynx and breaching the blood-brain-barrier (BBB).

45
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Which virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is responsible for significant inflammation and tissue damage?

Lipo-oligosaccharide (LOS).

46
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Which 6 serogroups cause almost all reported cases of invasive meningococcal disease?

A, B, C, W, X, and Y.

47
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What is the purpose of the sIgA protease in Neisseria meningitidis?

To help the bacteria survive the upper respiratory tract (URT).

48
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What diagnostic method is used for Neisseria meningitidis if antibiotics were administered before culture?

PCR (due to low bacterial count).

49
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What is the Gram stain and shape of Neisseria meningitidis?

Gram-negative diplococcus.

50
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How does Neisseria meningitidis enter the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

By crossing the blood-brain barrier (BBB).

51
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The MenACWY vaccine is what type of vaccine?

Meningococcal conjugate vaccine.

52
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Which N. meningitidis virulence factor allows for capsular switching?

The polysaccharide capsule.

53
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What type of organism is Pseudomonas aeruginosa in terms of its role in disease?

An opportunistic pathogen.

54
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What happens to host ciliated cells during a Bordetella pertussis infection?

They stop beating, which prevents the clearing of debris and mucus.

55
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Which diagnostic test for TB measures the release of IFN-γ from pre-primed T cells?

IGRA (Interferon-Gamma Release Assay).

56
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What is the oxygen requirement for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Obligate aerobe, which means it needs oxygen to grow.

57
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What percentage of primary TB cases are pulmonary (PTB)?

90%.

58
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How is Mycobacterium leprae typically spread betwene people?

Through air droplets.

59
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What is the mortality rate of untreated inhalation anthrax once it becomes systemic?

Up to 100%.

60
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Which enzyme produced by P. aeruginosa degrades host IgG and IgA?

Elastase.

61
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In the context of P. aeruginosa, what is the significance of the CHO capsule binding to mucin?

It allows for bacterial adherence in the lower respiratory tract.

62
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How many doses are in the standard US human anthrax vaccine schedule?

5 doses with yearly boosters.

63
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What is the common name for disease caused by Bordetella pertussis?

Whooping cough.

64
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Why does P. aeruginosa thrive in the lungs of CF patients?

The thick mucin and impaired lung defenses provide an ideal environment.

65
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Which stage of Pertussis is also known as the ‘toxemic stage’?

The paroxysmal stage.

66
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What is the reservoir for MAC(M. avium complex)?

Soil, water, and animals.

67
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What type of disease does M. bovis typically cause in humans?

Extrapulmonary TB (affecting lympgh nodes, joints, and bone).

68
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Which N. meningitidis vaccine is specifically a recombinant subunit vaccine?

Meningitis B (MenB).

69
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What is the term for the redness and swelling observed in a positive TST?

Erythema.

70
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How long does it typically take for a person to test positive on a TST after initial TB infection?

Approximately 1 month.

71
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What is the function of host calmodulin in pertussis pathogenesis?

It is required for the bacterial adenylate cyclase toxin to increase cAMP.

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