Bio test 4

5) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?
A) community
B) organism
C) ecosystem
D) population

population

6) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of different species?
A) community
B) organism
C) ecosystem
D) population

community

7) What is a population?
A) a group of organisms living in a particular geographic area
B) a group of organisms of the same species living in a particular geographic area
C) a community as well as all the abiotic factors in a particular geographic area
D) all of the organisms of a species existing at a particular time

a group of organisms of the same species living in a particular geographic area

8) Which of these is a community?
A) all of the Staphylococcus aureus(a species of bacteria) living on your skin
B) all of the organisms living in your home
C) all of the people living in your neighborhood
D) all of the nut grass (considered a weed) in my backyard

Staphylococcus aureus

(a species of bacteria) living on your skin
B) all of the organisms living in your home
C) all of the people living in your neighborhood
D) all of the nut grass (considered a weed) in my backyard

all the organisms living in your home

10) Which of the following organisms are not ultimately dependent on sunlight for energy?
A) species that live in hydrothermal vent habitats
B) predators
C) marine species that live in the aphotic zone
D) bacteria that feed on dead organic matter

species that live in hydrothermal vent habitats

11) Aquatic organisms .
A) have a waxy coating to prevent water loss
B) may experience problems with water balance
C) typically have a plentiful supply of nitrogen
D) never find light to be in short supply

may experience problems with water balance

12) Which nutrients often limit the distribution and abundance of photosynthetic organisms?
A) water and oxygen
B) nitrogen and phosphorus
C) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
D) water and carbon dioxide

nitrogen and phosphorus

13) What term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space?
A) acclimation
B) adaptation
C) cosmosation
D) accreditation

acclimation

14) Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?
A) migrating to a different location
B) acclimation
C) endothermy
D) “flagging” by trees

migrating to a different location

15) In an aquatic ecosystem, what name is given to the region where photosynthesis can occur?
A) pelagic zone
B) aphotic zone
C) benthic zone
D) photic zone

photic zone

16) Wetlands .
A) are important in improving water quality
B) include rivers, streams, ponds, and lakes
C) are an example of a marine biome
D) are found in the intertidal zone

are important in improving water quality

17) What are estuaries?
A) a type of freshwater biome
B) areas near the start of a river
C) regions where ocean meets land
D) a transition area between a river and the ocean

a transition area between a river and the ocean

18) Which of these biomes is one of the most biologically productive of all biomes?
A) open oceans
B) estuaries
C) temperate grasslands
D) coniferous forests

estuaries

19) What name is given to the region where sea meets land?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone

intertidal zone

20) What name is given to the open ocean?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) photic zone

pelagic realm

21) In what part of the ocean are phytoplankton found?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone

pelagic realm

22) What name is given to the seafloor?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone

benthic realm

23) The temperate zones .
A) have the coolest climates on Earth
B) are relatively wet
C) are relatively dry
D) are the zones closest to the equator

are relatively wet

24) Which of the following can moderate climate by absorbing heat when the air is warm and releasing heat when the air is cold?
A) clouds
B) glaciers
C) mountains
D) oceans

oceans

25) Water-storing plants and deeply-rooted shrubs are plants that characterize .
A) tropical forests
B) chaparral
C) deserts
D) savanna

deserts

26) The Sahara Desert and the Negev Desert belong to the same .
A) community
B) abiota
C) biome
D) biota

biome

27) Long, snowy winters as well as evergreen trees such as pine and fir are found in .
A) chaparral
B) temperate broadleaf forest
C) coniferous forest
D) temperate grasslands

coniferous forest

28) are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems.
A) Antelopes
B) Zebras
C) Buffalo
D) Insects

Insects

29) What is one important difference between savannas and temperate grasslands?
A) Savannas only rarely experience fires
B) Savannas have trees
C) Savannas are inhabited by grazing mammals
D) Savannas have very fertile soil

Savannas have trees

30) Which of these biomes is maintained by fire?
A) temperate deciduous forest
B) chaparral and savanna
C) desert and chaparral
D) savanna and temperate grassland

chaparral and savanna

31) Permafrost, or permanently frozen subsoil, characterizes .
A) temperate deciduous forest
B) chaparral
C) tundra
D) coniferous forest

tundra

32) Most of the temperate grassland in North America has been converted to .
A) cities
B) farmland
C) national parks
D) suburbs

farmland

33) Water moves from land to the atmosphere through .
A) precipitation only
B) transpiration only
C) transpiration and evaporation
D) evaporation and precipitation

transpiration and evaporation

34) With regard to the environment as a whole, when is the worst time to apply pesticide to your lawn?
A) when it is raining, or is about to rain
B) when it is cold, or is about to get cold
C) at the same time you apply fertilizer
D) at night

when it is raining, or is about to rain

35) What fraction of Earth’s surface has been altered by human use?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 95%

75%

36) The greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temperatures. This increase is primarily due to .
A) CO₂ and other greenhouse gases allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earth’s surface
B) CO₂ and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of UV radiation from Earth
C) the loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere
D) CO₂ and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of heat from Earth

CO₂ and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of heat from Earth

37) Temperature increases due to global warming have been greatest .
A) close to the poles
B) in the sea
C) in the tropics
D) in deserts

close to the poles

38) The effect of deforestation has been to .
A) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
B) increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
C) increase the rate at which carbon dioxide is incorporated into organic material
D) increase the rate of carbon dioxide production through cellular respiration

increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

39) In the oceans, global warming has .
A) decreased the amount of oxygen available
B) benefited corals
C) made the water more basic
D) made the water more acidic

made the water more acidic

40) Which of the following is not a result of global warming?
A) changes in the breeding seasons of some species
B) decreasing sea levels
C) melting permafrost
D) shifts in the ranges of some species

decreasing sea levels

41) Which of the following actions would increase your carbon footprint?
A) reusing or recycling items
B) eating more vegetables and less meat
C) eating more beef and less chicken
D) walking instead of driving

eating more beef and less chicken

Art Questions

1) Examine the figure below. Which part of Earth receives the greatest intensity of solar radiation?
A) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
B) equator
C) North and South Poles
D) all parts of Earth receive the same intensity of solar radiation.

equator

2) Examine the figure below. Phytoplankton live in the _.
A) photic zone and aphotic zone
B) aphotic zone
C) benthic zone
D) photic zone

photic zone

3) Examine the figure below. Globally, the largest amount of water moves from .
A) the oceans to the atmosphere by evaporation
B) land to the atmosphere by evaporation and transpiration
C) the atmosphere to land by precipitation
D) land to the oceans by surface and groundwater runoff

the oceans to the atmosphere by evaporation

Scenario Questions

1) The physiological response that allows salmon to survive in fresh water, then in salt water, and then fresh water again is an example of .
A) a behavioral response
B) evolution
C) acclimation
D) an anatomical response

acclimation

2) At different times in their lives, salmon can be found in all of the following except .
A) a freshwater biome
B) a chaparral
C) the pelagic realm
D) an estuary

a chaparral

What is a population?
A) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area
B) a group of individuals of a single species that occupy the same general area
C) a group of individuals of a single species that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them
D) all of the organisms of a single species existing at a particular time

all of the organisms of a single species existing at a particular time

2) Which of these is a characteristic of Type I survivorship?
A) low survivorship for the very young
B) most individuals survive to older age intervals
C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan
D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age

most individuals survive to older age intervals

3) Type I survivorship curves are typical of species that exhibit ______.
A) an intermediate number of offspring and an intermediate level of parental care
B) few offspring and good parental care
C) many offspring and good parental care
D) many offspring and poor parental care

few offspring and good parental care

4) Which of these best describes Type II survivorship?
A) high survivorship for the very young
B) most individuals survive to older age intervals
C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan
D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age

survivorship is constant over the lifespan

5) Which of these best describes Type III survivorship?
A) high survivorship for the very young
B) most individuals survive to older age intervals
C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan
D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age

survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age

6) Opportunistic species typically ______.
A) are very long-living
B) have a large number of offspring
C) reach sexual maturity slowly
D) exhibit a Type I survivorship curve

have a large number of offspring

7) Species that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ______.
A) have long lives
B) exhibit a Type III survivorship curve
C) exhibit a Type II survivorship curve
D) have a large number of offspring

have long lives

8) If there are 500 oak trees in a forest covering 50 square kilometers then the population density is ______.
A) 5 trees per square kilometer
B) 10 trees per square kilometer
C) 50 trees per square kilometer
D) 100 trees per square kilometer

10 trees per square kilometer

9) In an ideal, unlimited environment, a population's growth follows a(n) ______ model.
A) exponential
B) hypergeometric
C) logistic
D) geometric

exponential

10) In an ideal, unlimited environment, what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?
A) S
B) J
C) ∧
D) ∪

J

11) If a population's growth rate decreases as the population size approaches carrying capacity, the population's growth follows a(n) ______ model.
A) exponential
B) hypergeometric
C) logistic
D) geometric

logistic

12) In a population that is following a logistic growth pattern, what shape does the population's growth curve most closely resemble?
A) S
B) J
C) ∧
D) ∪

S

13) ______ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.
A) Crash point
B) Carrying capacity
C) Intrinsic population size
D) Intrinsic rate of increase

Carrying capacity

14) According to the logistic growth model, what happens to a population when the size of the population reaches carrying capacity?
A) The growth rate remains unchanged.
B) The population begins to decrease in size.
C) The population crashes.
D) The growth rate is zero.

The growth rate is zero.

15) Competition among individuals of the same species is ______ competition.
A) extraspecific
B) intraspecific
C) interspecific
D) endospecific

intraspecific

16) Which of these factors operates in a density-dependent manner?
A) blizzard
B) volcanic eruption
C) food supply
D) flood

food supply

17) Over time, the populations of most species ______.
A) fluctuate
B) increase rapidly, crash, and never recover
C) continuously increase
D) exhibit boom-and-bust cycles

fluctuate

18) An unexpected freeze that kills a population of chipmunks is an example of ______.
A) a density-independent factor
B) a natal effect
C) a density-dependent factor
D) an intrinsic factor

a density-independent factor

19) The Endangered Species Act aims to help protect species that ______.
A) are in danger of extinction
B) have suffered significant habitat destruction
C) compete with invasive species
D) are economically valuable

are in danger of extinction

20) The red-cockaded woodpecker, an endangered species, is dependent upon ______ for maintenance of its source habitat.
A) thick vegetation at least 15 feet in height
B) fire
C) floods
D) corn snakes

fire

21) You arrive back in the United States after having visited a foreign country located on another continent. The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home. Being the knowledgeable person you are, you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be ______.
A) carrying endangered fruit
B) carrying a non-native species that could damage North American ecosystems
C) contaminated with CFCs that will damage the ozone layer above North America
D) contaminated with sufficient DDT to cause serious harm to anyone who eats the fruit

carrying a non-native species that could damage North American ecosystems

22) Non-native species can have important effects on biological communities by ______.
A) preying upon native species
B) competing with native species for resources
C) reducing biodiversity
D) doing all of the above

doing all of the above

23) Examples of invasive species include ______.
A) kudzu and red-cockaded woodpeckers
B) cod and Chilean sea bass
C) snowshoe hares and kudzu
D) cheatgrass and Burmese pythons

cheatgrass and Burmese pythons

24) The intentional release of a natural enemy to attack a pest population is called ______.
A) biological control
B) coevolution
C) sustainable resource management
D) integrated pest management

biological control

25) The use of the Indian mongoose to control rat populations ______.
A) shows how effective biological control can be
B) shows why integrated pest management usually fails
C) became a disaster when the mongoose turned out to be as invasive as its target
D) is an example of how coevolution makes biological control difficult

became a disaster when the mongoose turned out to be as invasive as its target

26) Most crop pests ______.
A) have an opportunistic life history
B) have an equilibrial life history
C) exhibit type I survivorship
D) consist of long-lived individuals

have an opportunistic life history

27) Integrated pest management ______.
A) favors overwhelming a pest with chemical pesticides
B) advocates total eradication of pest species
C) aims to keep pest populations on an exponential growth curve
D) advocates mixed-species plantings and rotating crops

advocates mixed-species plantings and rotating crops

28) Throughout most of human history, human population size ______.
A) was at carrying capacity
B) grew very slowly
C) showed boom and bust cycles
D) skyrocketed

grew very slowly

29) In most developed countries, overall population growth rates ______.
A) are high, so the population is growing rapidly
B) are high, so the population size is fairly stable
C) are near zero, so the population size is fairly stable
D) are low, so the population is declining

are near zero, so the population size is fairly stable

30) In most developing countries ______.
A) birth rates equal death rates, so population size is fairly stable
B) birth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is declining
C) birth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly
D) birth rates are much higher than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly

birth rates are much higher than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly

31) What will be the approximate shape of the age-structure diagram of a rapidly increasing population?
A) a rectangle
B) a pyramid
C) an inverted pyramid
D) an hourglass

a pyramid

32) A study of the human ecological footprint shows that ______.
A) we have already overshot the planet's capacity to sustain us
B) Earth can sustain the current population, but not much more
C) Earth can sustain a population about double the current population
D) human population size will soon crash

we have already overshot the planet's capacity to sustain us

33) The ecological footprint of the United States ______.
A) is about the same as the global average
B) is lower than the global average
C) shows that Americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel
D) shows that its population size is increasing slowly

shows that Americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel

1) The figure below shows population cycles of snowshoe hare and lynx. Recent field studies suggest that the most likely explanation for these cycles is ______.
A) periodic winter storms
B) excessive predation of snowshoe hares
C) nearly unlimited food for hares during the summers
D) boom and bust cycles in lemming populations

excessive predation of snowshoe hares

2) When did male fur seals reach carrying capacity?
A) 1915
B) 1930
C) 1940
D) 1950

1940

3) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C

Population A

4) If all populations occupy different areas that are approximately the same size, which population will have the lowest density after three years?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C

Population C

5) Which of the following choices matches this figure?
A) Dolphins produce only single offspring at a time and provide parental care for many months.
B) During "mating frenzies," male and female squid aggregate and release hundreds of eggs and sperm into the water column. The fertilized eggs are often quickly preyed on by fish.
C) The century plant grows for many years and reproduces and releases hundreds of seeds just once before it withers and dies. Because of the dry desert environment in which it lives, many of the seeds do not survive or are eaten.
D) In some species of lizards and rodents, survivorship is constant over the life span.

Dolphins produce only single offspring at a time and provide parental care for many months.

1) The present rate of species loss ______.
A) suggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century
B) is about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years
C) is as much as 100 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years
D) is slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts

is as much as 100 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years

2) The single greatest threat to biodiversity comes from ______.
A) habitat destruction and fragmentation
B) invasive species
C) overexploitation
D) pollution

habitat destruction and fragmentation

3) Several years ago I was crossing the border from Canada to the United States and I had a bag of Washington State apples with me. The customs officer at the border would not let me take the apples with me into the United States. Why did the customs officer refuse to allow me to cross the border with my apples?
A) Washington State apples are considered an endangered fruit.
B) Apples grown in the United States for export may be contaminated with DDT.
C) There may have been a species that was not native to the United States hitching a ride on my apples.
D) Economics: If I couldn't bring the apples in with me, I would have to buy my apples from a store in the United States.

There may have been a species that was not native to the United States hitching a ride on my apples.

4) An example of a mutualism, or +/+ relationship, is ______.
A) the relationship between corals and unicellular algae
B) cryptic coloration in frogs
C) herbivory
D) the relationship between Virginia's warblers and orange-crowned warblers, which use some of the same resources

the relationship between corals and unicellular algae

5) Populations of two coexisting species are both tertiary consumers in a community. What relationship may exist between these two organisms?
A) predation
B) mutualism
C) competition
D) commensalism

competition

6) As a result of a severe disturbance, a community will ______.
A) not be repopulated
B) be replaced by a community that is completely different from the previous community
C) not recover for thousands of years
D) undergo succession

undergo succession

7) Organisms that consume producers are ______.
A) detritivores
B) decomposers
C) primary consumers
D) producers

primary consumers

8) In the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the antelope is ______.
A) both an herbivore and a secondary consumer
B) both a producer and a primary consumer
C) both an herbivore and a primary consumer
D) a secondary consumer only

both an herbivore and a primary consumer

9) In the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the human is a(n) ______.
A) tertiary consumer
B) secondary consumer
C) primary consumer
D) producer

secondary consumer

10) Small fishes that eat zooplankton are ______.
A) primary consumers
B) producers
C) tertiary consumers
D) secondary consumers

secondary consumers

11) Which of these convert organic matter to inorganic matter by breaking down dead organisms?
A) producers
B) detritivores
C) decomposers
D) primary consumers

decomposers

12) Most decomposers are ______.
A) plants and fungi
B) bacteria and plants
C) fungi and prokaryotes
D) animals

fungi and prokaryotes