Exam 3 Segment Playposit Questions: Bacterial Pathogens

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165 Terms

1
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Why are bacterial toxins well-known among virulence factors?

They can be easily purified from bacterial supernatant

2
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What is the role of horizontal gene transfer (HGT) in the evolution and spread of toxin-producing bacteria

it allows rapid spread of toxin genes among bacteria

3
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Which bacterial toxin is primarily associated with Shigella bacteria but can also be produced by certain strains of E. coli?

Shiga toxin

4
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What is the primary component of LPS endotoxin found in Gram-negative bacteria

Lipid A

5
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Which class of toxins possesses both cytotoxic and immunosuppressive properties

mycolactone toxins

6
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Which bacterium is responsible for causing Buruli ulcer

Mycobacterium ulcerans

7
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Type I toxins primarily act on the

Host cell surface

8
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Type III Toxins have an A-B structure with 2 functional components, where the B component:

Binds to the host cell surface

9
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Superantigens exert their effects by binding to

T-cell receptors (TCRs)

10
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Which type of hemolysis causes the lysis of surrounding RBCs, leaving a yellowish zone

beta-hemolysis

11
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Pore-forming toxins cause cell lysis by:

Forming channels in the membrane

12
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Clostridium perfrinogens produces an alpha-toxin that causes:

gangrene

13
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A-B toxins, also known as type III toxins, typically have 2 functional domains or subunits. The A domain is responsible for

Conferring toxic activity, usually enzymatic

14
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The B domain of A-B toxins:

Facilitates the translocation of the A domain across the membrane

15
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Proteolytic cleavage separates the A and B domains in A-B toxins, which remain connected by a:

disulfide bond

16
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The host cell specificity of A-B toxins is determined by:

The B domain

17
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AB-type toxins consist of

A and B portions

18
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Which organism produced neurotoxins

Clostridium botulinum

19
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AB-type toxins have two main portions: A and B. The A portion is responsible for:

Enzymatic activity, often ADP-ribosylation

20
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The T domain of AB-type toxins is

involved in toxin transfer inside the host cell.

21
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What is the hallmark symptom of diphtheria

Grayish pseudo membrane formation

22
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how does the diphtheria toxin enter the host cell's cytoplasm

endocytosis and translocation through the endosome membrane

23
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what is the function of the A subunit of the diphtheria toxin

Catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of EF-2

24
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how is diphtheria toxin expression regulated in Corynebacterium diphtheria

by the chromosomal gene dtxR

25
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What is the purpose of using Botox injections

- to reduce the depth of wrinkles

- to treat urinary incontinence

- to prevent severe scarring during wound healing

26
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how if botulinum toxin protected from stomach acids and protease enzymes in the GI tract

the nontoxic components of the progenitor toxin provide protection

27
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what is the specific effect of the botulinum neurotoxin on peripheral neurons

inhibition of neurotransmitter release

28
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what role do SNARE proteins play in normal neurotransmission

they help mediate vesicle docking and fusion

29
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what is the role of an antitoxin in the treatment of botulism

neutralizing the botulinum neurotoxin

30
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Which term refers to the trafficking of proteins from the cytosol through the cell membrane

Translocation

31
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What are the Sec and Tat pathways?

Protein secretion systems in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria

32
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Which protein secretion systems are Sec-dependent in gram negative bacteria

type 2 and 5

33
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What is the role of the Sec system

Translocating proteins from the cytosol to the periplasm

34
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What is the unique characteristic of the tat system

it transports fully folded proteins

35
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What is the role of the N terminal signal sequence in the Sec system

Guides the protein to its destination

36
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Which bacteria fold the transported protein in the periplasmic space

gram negative bacteria

37
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Which system is the most common mechanism in bacteria for protein translocation

post translational system

38
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What happens to the signal sequence after protein secretion or export

it is cleaved by peptidases

39
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Which protein complex acts as an unfolded polypeptide-conducting channel in the Sec system

SecYEG translocon

40
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What is the role of SecA in the post translational mechanism of the Sec system

Binds to the signal peptide of the secretion substrate protein

41
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Quorum sensing in bacteria relies on the production and detection of small diffusible signaling molecules called

Autoinducers

42
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Autoinducer concentrations increase as cell density

increases

43
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What are autoinducers in quorum sensing

small, diffusible signaling molecules used by bacteria to coordinate their activities

44
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Which statement is true regarding autoinducers

Autoinducers contribute to inter-species interactions and communication between different species of bacteria

45
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Which molecules are primarily used as autoinducers in gram negative bacteria

N-acyl homoserine lactones (AHLs)

46
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Which molecules are primarily used as autoinducers in gram positive bacteria

Autoinducing peptides (AIPs)

47
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How do autoinducing peptides (AIPs) facilitate intraspecies communication in gram positive bacteria

They remain in the extracellular environment and interact with membrane receptor proteins

48
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What is the advantage of autoinducer-2 (Al-2) in interspecies cell-cell communication

Al-2 indicates the presence of other bacteria regardless of their type

49
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What is the role of Vibrio-fischeri in the Bobtail squid?

It serves as a symbiont within the squid's light organ

50
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What happens under conditions of high cell densities in Vibrio fischeri

Phosphatase activity is activated, reducing biofilm formation

51
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What is the role of cholera toxin in Vibrio cholerae infection

It disrupts ion flow control, leading to water loss and watery diarrhea

52
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What are the two autoinducer molecules involved in quorum sensing in Vibria cholerae

CAl-1 and Al-2

53
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Staphylcoccus aureus

- Ability to infect various organs

- Commensal nature

- Inability to form biofilms

- Ability to acquire antibiotic resistance

54
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Which system regulates the growth-phase-dependent expression of virulence factors in Staphylococcus aureus?

Agr quorum sensing system

55
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What is the function of the AgrD gene in Staphylococcus aureus?

encoding a precursor peptide for AIP synthesis

56
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How do AIPs from different staphylococcal species interfere with each other's signaling?

They compete for the same receptor binding site

57
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How many distinct secretion systems do gram (-) bacteria have

six

58
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Which secretion system shuttles proteins from the cytoplasm to the extra cellular space

type I

59
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Which type of secretion system injects products into the cytoplasm of other cells

type III

60
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Which type of secretion system is commonly used to secrete AB toxins

Type II

61
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Which system requires the Sec translocon complex to translocate proteins across the cytoplasmic membrane

Type II secretion system

62
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Which systems are evolutionarily related to the type II secretion system

Type IV pili biogenesis system and competence system for DNA uptake

63
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The type 1 secretion system transports proteins:

from the cytoplasm to the cell surface

64
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the type 1 secretion system consists of three components which of the following is NOT one of these components

A: inner membrane protein

B: Adaptor protein

c: ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transporter or proton anti porter

D: outer membrane pore

(A)

65
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The type 3 secretion system (T3SS) is used by bacteria to

inject toxic effector proteins into host cell cytosol

66
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The T3SS injectisome seals off before the needle structure is assembled to

ensure that effector proteins are only secreted upon contact with the host cell

67
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Chaperone proteins in the T3SS guide the effector proteins and are responsible for

Unfolding the effectors for secretion

68
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In Yersinia, the signal for translocation in the T3SS is

contact between the host membrane and the bacteria

69
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The conjugation system of the type four secretion system is responsible for:

transferring DNA and proteins to another recipient bacterium

70
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The type six secretion system (T6SS) is evolutionarily related to

Bacteriophage T4 tail and baseplate

71
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The T6SS has a unique capability to deliver effector molecules

into the adjacent cell when in close proximity to the T6SS spike

72
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In gram-positive bacteria, protein secretion can occur through both Sec-dependent and Sec-independent mechanisms. Which of the following is an example of a Sec-dependent mechanism?

sortase system

73
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The SecA2 accessory system in gram positive bacteria is responsible for exporting

Serine-rich glycosylated virulence factor proteins

74
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The cytolysin-mediated translocation (CMT) system in Streptococcus pyogenes is functionally similar to which secretion systems found in gram-negative bacteria

Type III and type IV secretion systems

75
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What distinguishes Yersinia pestis from Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

- deletions and acquisitions leading to enhanced transmission potential

- acquisition of a gene enabling efficient colonization of the midgut

- formation of biofilms in the foregut of fleas

All of the above

76
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How is Yersinia enterocolitica primarily transmitted

Consumption of contaminated pork

77
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Which cells in the Peyer's patches are targeted by Yersinia for binding and penetration

M cells

78
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What is the preferred route of dissemination for Yersinia after colonization

lymphatic system

79
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Which of the following is an adhesion used by Yersinia to facilitate attachment to host cells

Invasin

80
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How does Yersinia regulate its mobility and attachment to host cells based on temperature?

Decreased motility and increased attachment at higher temperatures

81
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What modification does Yersinia make to its lipopolysaccharide (LPS) structure at higher temperatures?

it becomes tetra-acylated

82
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What is the function of cytosolic chaperones in Yersinia infection

to ensure proper folding and secretion of Yop effectors

83
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How do YopP/YopJ and YopH contribute to the evasion of the host immune response?

By inhibiting NF-kB and MAP-kinase signaling pathways

84
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What type of cell death is induced by Yersinia infection?

apoptosis, necrosis, pyroptosis

85
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What is the main difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal compounds in antimicrobial therapy?

Bactericidal compounds kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic compounds inhibit bacterial growth.

86
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Bacteriostatic substances are most suitable for patients with

Intact immune systems

87
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What does the MIC test determine?

the lowest concentration of an antibiotic required to prevent bacterial growth

88
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What does the large size of the clearance zone in the Kirby-Bauer Assay indicate?

The high effectiveness of the antibiotic in inhibiting bacterial growth.

89
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What is the primary difference between disinfectants and antiseptics?

Disinfectants are used on surfaces, while antiseptics are used on the skin

90
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Which phase of antibiotic discovery is considered the most challenging and time-consuming?

Lead optimization

91
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Why have pharmaceutical companies lost interest in antibiotic discovery?

challenges and costs involved in the process.

92
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Why do antibiotics primarily focus on a limited set of targets?

These targets have been successful in the past

93
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What is the final step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis?

Cross-linking of peptidoglycan

94
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What is the target of the antibiotic fosfomycin?

Conversion of UDP-NAG to UDP-NAM

95
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Which step of peptidoglycan biosynthesis is targeted by bacitracin?

Phosphorylation and recycling of undecaprenyl pyrophosphate.

96
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Which antibiotics act on the transpeptidation step of peptidoglycan biosynthesis?

beta-lactams

97
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What is the role of penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) in peptidoglycan biosynthesis?

catalyzation of transpeptidation reactions

98
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How do β-lactam antibiotics inhibit transpeptidase enzymes?

by opening the beta-lactam ring and forming a covalent bond

99
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What is the additional activity possessed by fourth-generation cephalosporins compared to third-generation cephalosporins?

resistance to beta-lactamase enzymes

100
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Which enzyme do glycopeptides like vancomycin and teicoplanin bind to?

transpeptidase enzymes