Micro Lab Final questions

Tears, saliva, mucus, and breast milk contain the enzyme _____________ that destroys certain bacteria.

 

protein kinase

 

granzyme

 

lysozyme

 

adenylate cyclase

lysozyme 

Which first-line defense molecules produced by the immune system kill pathogens, and pathogens rarely become resistant to them?

 

AMPs

 

tumor necrosis factors

 

holoenzymes

 

antibodies

AMPs

Which subcategory of first-line defenses does skin belong to?

 

molecular barriers

 

physical barriers

 

mechanical barriers

 

chemical barriers

physical barriers

what is B

eosinophil

what is A

neutrophil

what is F

dendritic cell

what is E

monocyte

what is C

basophil

what is D

mast cell 

what is G?

lymphocyte

Swollen ________ indicate that a foreign antigen is present, and leukocytes are rapidly multiplying to mount an immune response.

 

thymus tissue

 

lymph nodes

 

spleen tissue

 

bone marrow

lymph nodes

The thymus and bone marrow are considered _________ lymphoid tissue.

 

secondary

 

GALT

 

MALT

 

primary

primary

The majority of secondary lymphoid tissue is called ________, and includes Peyer’s patches, tonsils, and the appendix.

 

the spleen

 

MALT

 

bone marrow

 

lymph nodes

MALT

Which granulocyte when stained exhibits red-orange granules, is moderately phagocytic, and attacks allergens and parasites?

 

mast cells

 

eosinophils

 

basophils

 

neutrophils

eosinophils

Which granulocyte contains granules packed with histamine, that stain dark purple?

 

eosinophils

 

monocytes

 

neutrophils

 

basophils

basophils

Which agranulocyte has a large horseshoe-shaped nucleus, and matures into either fixed or wandering macrophages?

 

dendritic cells

 

mast cells

 

NK cells

 

monocytes

monocytes

Signaling proteins that support cell-to-cell communication and initiate and coordinate immune responses are called ___________. Examples of these signaling proteins are interleukins and interferons.

 

necrosis factors

 

pyrogens

 

cytokines

 

siderophores

cytokines

Which complement pathway has complement proteins that are directly activated by interacting with a pathogen?

 

traditional pathway

 

classical pathway

 

alternative pathway

 

lectin pathway

alternative pathway 

Which of the following is NOT a hallmark sign of inflammation?

 

pain

 

redness

 

swelling

 

fever

fever

Fever-inducing agents released by certain microbes are called ___________.

 

adhesins

 

siderophores

 

pyrogens

 

lectins

pyrogens

______ cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and ______ cells are involved in humoral immunity.

 

B; T

 

granulocyte/agranulocyte

 

T; B

 

agranulocyte/granulocyte

T;B

T cells can be classified by certain glycoproteins on their surface called clusters of differentiation (CD). T helper cells are classified as __________, and T cytotoxic are classified as __________.

 

CD8/CD4

 

CD4/ CD8

 

CD8/CD3

 

CD7/CD4

CD4/ CD8

What is the function of activated macrophages in cell-mediated immunity?

 

stimulates the production of IgE and IgM

 

enhances phagocytic activity

 

activates cells related to cell-mediated immunity (macrophages, Tc cells, NK cells)

 

recruits neutrophils and stimulates the production of antimicrobial proteins

enhances phagocytic activity

Once T or B cells are activated, they proliferate and differentiate into active immune cells and ___________ cells that protect the body from reinfection from the same pathogen.

 

regulatory

 

terminal

 

memory

 

post-immune

memory 

T helper cells produce cytokines that signal B cells to produce plasma cells, and T ________ cells, that function to destroy infected cells, cancer cells, and transplanted tissues.

 

regulatory

 

necrotic

 

cytotoxic

 

stimulatory

cytotoxic

The T helper cell subclass that stimulates B cells to proliferate and differentiate is called ________.

 

TC

 

TH2

 

Treg

 

TH1

TH2

Which of the following is a function of antibodies?

 

increases phagocytosis

 

all answers are functions of antibodies

 

activation of complement

 

neutralization of antigens

all answers are functions of antibodies

Which antibody isotype can be monomeric or dimeric, and is the primary antibody found in breast milk?

 

IgA

 

IgM

 

IgG

 

IgD

IgA

Which antibody isotype can be monomeric or pentameric, and is produced early in infection?

 

IgE

 

IgM

 

IgG

 

IgA

IgM

Various mechanisms used by the host to defend against unwanted pathogens is called __________.

 

immunity

 

hygiene hypothesis

 

tolerance

 

immune theory

immunity 

First-and second-line defenses are considered ___________.

 

cellular immunity

 

adaptive immunity

 

humoral immunity

 

innate immunity

innate immunity

Which of the following is not considered a part of innate immunity?

 

normal microbiota

 

phagocytes

 

cytotoxic T-cells

 

skin

cytotoxic T cells

Which of the following doesn't describe an action of first line-innate mechanical defenses?

 

trapping

 

rinsing

 

digesting

 

flushing

digesting 

Which type of first-line innate defenses does stomach acid belong to?

 

physical barriers

 

chemical barriers

 

mechanical barriers

 

cellular barriers

chemical barriers

Which of the following is NOT a molecular second-line innate defense?

 

complement

 

iron-binding proteins

 

cytokines

 

lysozyme

lysozyme

Which of the following leukocytes is part of cellular second-line innate immunity?

 

plasma cells

 

T cells

 

B cells

 

neutrophils

neutrophils 

Which type of cytokines interfere with viral replication in virus infected cells?

 

chemokines

 

interleukins

 

interferons

 

tumor necrosis factors

interferons

What is the innate immune function of ferritin in the blood?

 

binds free iron

 

recruits phagocytes

 

induces apoptosis

 

induces fever

binds free iron

Which of the following is not a complement pathway?

 

classical pathway

 

lectin pathway

 

primary pathway

 

alternative pathway

primary pathway 

Which of the following in not an outcome of complement cascade activation?

 

fever

 

cytolysis

 

opsonization

 

inflammation

fever

What is the outcome when a MAC complex is formed in a cell?

 

cell proliferation

 

cell phagocytosis

 

cell lysis

 

cell differentiation

cell lysis

A molecule that stimulates an immune response is called __________.

 

an opsonin

 

a siderophore

 

an antigen

 

a pyrogen

an antigen 

T cell and B cell receptors only recognize one type of ____________.

 

amino acid

 

complement protein

 

epitope

 

adaptogen

epitope

The cellular and humoral responses proceed through four stages of activation. Put the following stages in the order that they occur:

A) Antigen elimination and memory
B) Antigen presentation
C) Lymphocyte differentiation and proliferation
D) Lymphocyte activation

B,D,C,A

What category of immune deficiencies results from genetic causes?

• primary

• secondary

• tertiary

• quaternary

primary immunodeficiency

What category of autoimmune diseases results in damage to diverse tissues throughout the body?

• localized

• systemic

• congenital

• acquired

systemic

The cause of autoimmune diseases is unclear, but genetic predisposition, and exposure to ________________ may lead to these disorders.

• certain infectious agents 

• ultraviolet light 

• chemical preservatives 

• vaccine adjuvant 

certain infectious agents

The body’s response to an antigen which is beyond what is considered normal is called a/an _________ response.

• innate response

• sensitization

• adaptive response

• hypersensitivity

hypersensitivity

It is unclear why hypersensitivities develop, but genetics and environmental factors may play a role. Another proposed factor suggests that individuals living in developed countries may have weaker immune systems due to accessibility of clean food, and water, antibiotics, and minimized exposure to diseases. This is known as the ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­__________ hypothesis.

• coombs

• hygiene

• developed nation

• first world

hygiene

When an allergen is recognized by the immune system, it mounts a humoral response producing IgE antibodies which bind to mast cells or basophils. Upon subsequent exposure, the allergen binds to the IgE located on the mast cell or basophil which causes degranulation of chemical mediators. Name the chemical mediator blocked by Benadryl.

• lysozyme 

• pyrogen 

• histamine 

• transferrin 

histamine 

Systemic anaphylaxis is also known as _______________.

• contact dermatitis

• graft vs host

• seasonal allergies

• anaphylactic shock

anaphylactic shock

Conditions such as asthma and seasonal allergies are caused by what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

• Type IV

• type I

• type II

• type III

type I

What would likely occur if an individual with type A blood receives type B blood during a transfusion?

• coagulation of the blood 

• hemolysis of RBCs

• anaphylactic shock 

• hemolysis of WBCs

hemolysis of RBCs

ABO blood incompatibility reactions are an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

• type II

• type I

• type IV

• type III

type II

What would happen the FIRST time an Rh- woman is pregnant with an Rh+ fetus?

• anaphylactic shock would occur in the fetus

• antibodies to Rh factor would develop in the mother

• acute hemolysis of RBC of the fetus

• memory T-cells would become activated

antibodies to Rh factor would develop in the mother

When does hemolytic disease of the newborn occur?

• when an Rh+ woman becomes pregnant with her first Rh- fetus

• when a previously sensitized Rh+ woman is pregnant with her second Rh- fetus

• when an Rh- woman becomes pregnant with her first Rh+ fetus

• when a previously sensitized Rh- woman is pregnant with her second and subsequent Rh+ fetu

 

when a previously sensitized Rh- woman is pregnant with her second and subsequent Rh+ fetus

Name the condition caused by generation of an immune response against administered medications such as antitoxins and penicillin?

• sensitization syndrome

• serum sickness

• anaphylactic shock

• an autoimmune disease

serum sickness

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is caused by the complexing of soluble antigens with antibodies that are deposited into tissues?

• type IV

• type III

• type I

• type II

type III

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for autoimmune conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus?

• II

• I

• IV

• III

type III

____________ are small molecules that are in-and-of themselves incapable of eliciting an immune response.

• immunoglobulins

• complement proteins

• haptens

• ferritins

haptens

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with transplant rejection?

• II

• IV

• III

• I

type IV

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with allergic contact dermatitis?

• III

• II

• I

• IV

type IV

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the only one that isn’t antibody-mediated?

• III

• II

• I

• IV

type IV

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies bound to mast cells or basophils?

• I

• II

• IV

• III

type I

Type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder where certain insulin-producing cells in the pancreas are recognized as non-self and are destroyed. Which type of cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for Type I diabetes?

• I

• II

• III

• IV

type IV

Your patient has a severe headache, high fever, and a stiff neck. You suspect they have meningitis. You order a lumbar puncture and have the cerebrospinal fluid (CFS) Gram stained. Gram-positive cocci are observed. Why is Gram staining alone not enough to identify an unknown organism?

• there are many species of bacteria that have the same Gram stain reaction and morphology

• the Gram stain is an unreliable test

• Gram stain results are irrelevant in bacterial identification

 

there are many species of bacteria that have the same Gram stain reaction and morphology

What type of growth media contains components that only allow certain bacteria to grow?

• differential

• defined

• selective

• complex

selective media

What type of growth media permits growth of multiple types of bacteria but contains components that allow you to distinguish certain properties based on the appearance of the media after bacteria are grown?

• selective 

• complex

• defined 

• differential 

differential media 

Which set of results represents bacterial growth on selective media?

• plate set 2

• neither plate set 1 nor plate set 2

• plate set 1

• both plate set 1 and plate set 2

plate set 1

Which set of results represents bacterial growth that distinguishes different bacteria based on colony morphology?

• plate set 1

• neither plate set 1 nor plate set 2

• plate set 2

• both plate set 1 and plate set 2

plate set 2

What enzyme breaks down hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) into water and oxygen?

• catalase

• hydrolase

• oxidase

• peroxidase

catalase

The catalase test is used to differentiate between

• staphylococci from streptococci

• endospore producers from non-endospore producers

• Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria

• bacilli from coccobacilli

 

staphylococci from streptococci

True or False? Streptococci are catalase positive and staphylococci are catalase negative.

false

Using your knowledge of the catalase test, which of the following bacteria would be catalase positive? Select all that apply

• Streptococcus mutans

• Staphylococcus aureus

• Streptococcus pyogenes

• Staphylococcus epidermidis

•  

  Staphylococcus aureus

• staphylococcus epidermidis

Which enzyme protects bacteria from the toxic by-products of oxygen metabolism?

• citrase

• lactase

• phosphorylase

• catalase

catalase

True or False? Anaerobic bacteria are catalase negative.

true 

Why should you be careful not to touch the inoculating loop to a blood agar plate while testing for catalase?

• the RBCs will hemolyze and obscure your test results

• the presence of agar yields false negative results

• none of the answers are correct

• RBCs contain catalase yielding false positive results

 

RBCs contain catalase yielding false positive results

Which sample is catalase positive?

• neither sample A nor sample B

• both sample A and sample B

• sample A only

• sample B only

sample b only

The biochemical test in the image is used to detect the presence of an enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Using your knowledge of the test and the observed results, name the enzyme.

• catalase

• lipase

• coagulase 

• oxidase 

catalase

Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar inhibits growth of Gram-negative bacteria, but allows growth of Gram-positive bacteria.

True or False? PEA is a selective media.

true

Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar inhibits growth of Gram-negative bacteria, but allows growth of Gram-positive bacteria. If you streaked a mixed culture containing Klebsiella aerogenes and Staphylococcus aureus on PEA agar, which of the bacterial species would grow?

• klebsiella aerogenes only

• neither would grow

• staphylococcus aureus only

• both would grow

 

Staphylococcus aureus only

Which of the following media tests for hemolysins?

• mannitol salt agar (MAC)

• blood agar

• eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB)

• phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA)

blood agar

Blood agar distinguishes the different degrees of red blood cell destruction. What type of media is blood agar?

• defined

• selective and differential

• differential

• selective

differential

You inoculate a patient sample on a blood agar plate. After incubation, you observe a greenish-brown discoloration of the blood around the colonies. What hemolysis pattern is observed?

• beta

• alpha

• delta

• gamma

alpha hemolysis

You inoculate a patient sample on a blood agar plate. After incubation, you observe complete clearing of the blood around the colonies. What hemolysis pattern is observed?

• alpha

• beta

• gamma

• delta

beta hemolysis 

You inoculate a patient sample on a blood agar plate. After incubation, there is bacterial growth, but no visible change to the media. What hemolysis pattern is observed?

• alpha

• beta

• gamma

• delta

gamma hemolysis

complete breakdown of red blood cells

• beta hemoylsis

• alpha hemolysis

• gamma hemolysis

beta

unable to break down red blood cells 

• alpha hemolysis 

• beta hemolysis 

• gamma hemolysis 

gamma

partial breakdown of red blood cells

• alpha hemolysis

• beta hemolysis

• gamma hemolysis

alpha

Bile esculin agar (BEA) is a selective and differential media. What bacteria does it select for?

• bile resistant bacteria

• gram negative bacteria

• gram positive bacteria

• esculin resistant bacteria

bile resistant bacteria

Bile esculin agar (BEA) is a selective and differential media. What does it differentiate?

• the ability or inability of bacteria to hydrolyze bile

• the ability or inability of bacteria to hydrolyze esculin

• the ability or inability of bacteria to ferment glucose

• the ability or inability of bacteria to ferment lactose

 

the ability or inability of bacteria to hydrolyze esculin

These are the results of bacterial samples inoculated on bile esculin agar (BEA). Which tube(s) is/are positive for esculin hydrolysis?

• tube 1 and tube 3

• tube 2 only

• tube 2 and 3

• tube 1 only

tube 1 only

These are the results of bacterial samples inoculated on bile esculin agar (BEA). Which tube(s) is/are negative?

• tube 1 only

• tube 2 only

• tube 1 and tube 3

• tube 2 and tube 3

tube 2 and tube 3

These are the results of bacterial samples inoculated on bile esculin agar (BEA). Why is tube 3 considered a negative result?

• there must be at least 75% black-colored media to be considered positive

• tube three is not negative; there is black-colored media present

• there must be at least 50% black-colored media to be considered positive

 

there must be at least 50% black-colored media to be considered positive

What dye is DNA bound to in DNase agar?

• SYTOX green

• bromothymol blue

• methyl green

• malachite green

methyl green

These are the results of two samples inoculated on DNase agar. What can you conclude about sample A?

• sample A is negative for DNase

• sample A is Gram-positive

• sample A is Gram-negative

• sample A is positive for DNase

 

sample A is negative for DNase

What component in mannitol salt agar (MSA) is used to select for certain types of bacteria?

• 7.5% salt

• mannitol

• agar

• phenol red

7.5% salt 

What type of bacteria does mannitol salt agar select for?

• halotolerant bacteria

• bacteria that produce catalase

• bacteria that ferment lactose

• bacteria that ferment mannitol

halotolerant bacteria

These are the results of three bacterial specimens inoculated on mannitol salt agar (MSA). Which plate(s) has/have bacteria that are halotolerant?

• plate A and plate B

• plate B only

• plate A and plate C

• all three plates have halotolerant bacteria

plate A and plate B

These are the results of three bacterial specimens inoculated on mannitol salt agar (MSA). Which plate(s) has/have were inoculated with bacteria that are NOT halotolerant?

• plate A and plate B

• plate C only

• plate A only

• plate A and plate C

plate c only