Criminal Investigation Techniques – CIT Course (Days 1-3)

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Question-and-Answer flashcards covering major principles, statutory duties, court rulings, evidence types, witness management, interview practice, and crime-scene/canvass procedures emphasized in Days 1-3 of the CIT course.

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77 Terms

1
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What are the six core duties in the investigator’s role and responsibility list?

Respond, Gather, Recognize, Preserve & Document, Analyze, Develop, Act.

2
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Name four separate written plans an investigator may develop during a major case.

Victim/Witness plan, Canvass plan, Search plan, Interview plan (others include Investigative, Operational, Media, Crime-scene and Evidence-management plans).

3
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What two records must an investigator personally maintain in addition to a notebook?

Their case file (electronic or hard copy) and a case chronology.

4
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Define investigative thinking.

The process of analyzing evidence and information, considering alternate possibilities, to establish how an event occurred and whether theories are reasonable.

5
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Give the four major investigative failures highlighted in the lecture.

Tunnel vision, Hold-back responsibility, Lack of accountability, Secrecy.

6
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Which three personal qualities were stressed as critical for ‘the path to become an investigator’?

Patience/long-term commitment, Tenacity, Flexible thinking (avoiding tunnel vision).

7
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List five crime-scene management objectives.

Securing the scene, Scaling the investigation, Setting perimeters, Establishing a path of contamination, Establishing crime-scene security (plus Evidence management & Continuity).

8
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Who carries primary responsibility for securing a crime scene?

The first officer on scene (followed by the supervisor and the investigator).

9
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State Locard’s Exchange Principle.

Whenever two surfaces come into contact there is a two-way transfer of trace materials between them.

10
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Provide three examples of trace evidence under Locard’s Principle.

Fingerprints, Fibers, Blood (others include hairs, footprints, glass fragments, soil etc.).

11
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Define a ‘crime scene’.

Any location—indoor, outdoor, vehicle, or person—where a crime has taken place.

12
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What legal test provides police ancillary authority to control a crime scene?

The Waterfield test (R v Waterfield, 1963).

13
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Name and describe the three stages of crime for evidence transfer.

Pre-crime (planning), Criminal event (greatest evidence transfer), Post-crime (cast-off, cleanup, proceeds).

14
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What two greatest challenges exist at any crime scene?

Contamination and Loss of continuity.

15
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List the five objectives in a crime-scene search.

Present evidence to court, Understand evidence, Know scene contents, Interpret evidential value, Collect & secure evidence.

16
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Give the mnemonic for an investigator’s responsibilities at scene.

C.O.R.E. – Control, Observe, Record, Evaluate.

17
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Who normally performs the official walk-through of a scene?

The Forensic Identification Officer (Ident).

18
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Identify the two chief targets of a canvass.

Witnesses and Video surveillance.

19
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State four purposes of a canvass besides locating witnesses.

Determine scene extent, Locate secondary scenes, Establish victimology, Identify suspect(s) or motive, Fix time of occurrence.

20
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Why might a ‘mirror canvass’ be conducted?

To revisit the area at the same day/time as the crime, catching witnesses only present then or re-approaching reluctant witnesses.

21
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What is a ‘roadblock canvass’?

A checkpoint (appearing like a routine stop) set up to identify witnesses or possible suspects passing the crime area.

22
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List three skills required of a canvass coordinator.

Good organization, Effective communication, Experience tasking personnel (plus strong oral/written skills).

23
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Define direct evidence and give an example.

Evidence that proves a fact without inference—e.g., a witness sees the shooting on live video.

24
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Define indirect (circumstantial) evidence.

Evidence requiring inference to prove a fact—e.g., the accused’s fingerprint on the murder weapon.

25
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What is meant by the ‘probative value’ of evidence?

The weight or persuasive value a court assigns to a piece of evidence when deciding a fact in issue.

26
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Give three common document problems courts scrutinize.

Anonymous communications, Counterfeit or altered documents, Forged documents.

27
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Differentiate inculpatory and exculpatory evidence.

Inculpatory links the accused to the offence; Exculpatory tends to show the accused did not commit the crime.

28
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What is ‘corroborative evidence’?

Evidence that supports or confirms another piece already presented, helping the court reach belief beyond reasonable doubt.

29
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Define ‘chain of continuity’.

The documented, unbroken control of an exhibit from seizure through analysis to court presentation.

30
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State two best-practice rules for handling physical evidence.

Wear gloves/limit handling; Never mark or deface the item (use separate packaging & documentation).

31
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What statement type is required for a cooperative civilian witness?

A KGB statement (videotaped, under oath, with caution).

32
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Give the definition of an ‘independent witness’.

A witness not associated with the victim, suspect, or event in any way.

33
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List four key factors in witness credibility assessment.

Witness profile/history, Bias or motive, Location/length of observation, Time elapsed before interview (plus physical/cognitive abilities).

34
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Explain the ‘truthfully incorrect witness’.

A credible-appearing witness who is honestly mistaken, posing risk to investigative accuracy.

35
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What is the ‘dominant witness’ problem?

One witness influences others’ statements, contaminating independent recollections.

36
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What Supreme Court case modernized the Canadian ‘confession rule’?

R v Oickle (2000).

37
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State the four voluntariness criteria under R v Oickle.

Free from threat/promise, Free from oppression, No trickery undermining voluntariness, Accused has an operating mind.

38
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Which case confirmed police may continue questioning after a suspect asserts silence?

R v Singh (2007).

39
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Define ‘detention’ per Canadian law.

A restraint of liberty short of arrest, including psychological restraint when police take control by demand or direction.

40
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Name three triggers giving a detainee a fresh right to counsel.

Change in jeopardy, Change in process (e.g., polygraph), Failure to understand previous advice.

41
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What is a Prosper warning?

A re-caution provided when a detainee initially wanted counsel then waives that right; warns that further statements may be used in evidence.

42
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Which case warns against belittling a suspect’s lawyer?

R v Burlingham (1995).

43
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Under R v Leclair, what must an accused do if their chosen lawyer is unavailable?

Attempt to contact another lawyer within a reasonable time or proceed without counsel.

44
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What 2022 case clarified that age and status may convert a ‘voluntary’ interview into detention?

R v LaFrance (2022).

45
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Is an utterance legally different from a statement?

No. An utterance is simply a spontaneous statement and treated the same for admissibility.

46
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List the five PEACE model stages.

Planning & Preparation; Engage & Explain; Account, Clarification & Challenge; Closure; Evaluation.

47
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Provide the TED mnemonic used to elicit narratives.

Tell me…, Explain to me…, Describe to me…

48
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Rank the five interview stages taught.

Preparation, Commencing/rapport, Recording, Obtaining account, Deciding witness vs suspect approach.

49
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Define ‘Person of Interest’.

Someone whose background/opportunity warrants further investigation but for whom no evidence yet suggests culpability.

50
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Define ‘Suspect’ in major-crime management.

A person of interest for whom evidence now indicates culpability in the offence.

51
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What warning is required when a person becomes a suspect before giving a statement?

KGB caution plus right-to-counsel (if detained) before further questioning.

52
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Describe the main lesson from the Matthew Crosby homicide case regarding evidence review.

Investigators must promptly review seized evidence (e.g., 583 files went unexamined, causing delays and video loss).

53
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Which principle explains that suspects leaving a scene may discard incriminating items?

Post-crime ‘cast-off’ concept within the Three Stages of Crime.

54
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What is ‘hold-back evidence’ and why is it used?

Specific facts purposely withheld from media/public to test suspect or witness veracity during interviews.

55
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Give two examples of ‘stimulation tactics’.

Presenting (or implying) evidence to provoke a suspect’s reaction; Monitoring phone calls after interviews.

56
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Why is video canvassing considered one of the most valuable evidence searches?

Widespread CCTV provides objective, time-stamped, often high-probative evidence linking suspects, victims, and timelines.

57
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Minimum number of photos recommended for a fair photo line-up (TPS standard).

12 photos (OPC minimum is 10).

58
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What lineup safeguard prevents investigator bias?

Double-blind administration—officer showing photos knows nothing about the investigation.

59
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Explain the purpose of a ‘continuity log’.

A record tracking all persons entering/leaving a crime scene to protect integrity and evidence continuity.

60
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Which statutory duty (s. 217 CC) imposes liability for failing to prevent harm during tasks?

Duty of persons undertaking acts – must take reasonable steps to prevent bodily harm.

61
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What is conditional evidence?

Scene conditions that can disappear or change (lights on, temperature, odours, weather, windows/doors open).

62
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List two ancillary resources often requested for large-scale scenes.

K-9 and Air Support (others: Command post, ETF, Marine, Victim Services).

63
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Which Supreme Court case ruled completeness/accuracy of interview recording vital?

R v McFarlane & Bogel (2001).

64
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Provide three common types of evidence recognized in court.

Hearsay, Documentary, Testimonial (witness) evidence.

65
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What is an ‘anonymous communication’ problem with documents?

A document with no identified author, raising authenticity issues.

66
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State the three requirements of a KGB statement.

Given under oath/affirmation, videotaped in entirety, explicit warning of Criminal Code penalties for lying (s.137/139/140).

67
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Why might police perform a ‘re-canvass’?

To contact missed or reluctant witnesses, or capture short-term memory before it fades.

68
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Describe ‘oppression’ in interrogation context.

Conditions or treatment (e.g., prolonged isolation, deprivation) that overpower the suspect’s will, making any confession involuntary.

69
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What case held police influence alone doesn’t make a statement involuntary if rights are respected?

R v Paternak (1995).

70
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List four physical-match evidence types connecting suspect to scene.

Shoe impressions, Tool-mark impressions, Tire impressions, Bite impressions.

71
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What is the primary reason courts favour physical exhibits?

They allow the trier of fact to directly inspect tangible items when deciding facts in issue.

72
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Explain ‘mirror canvass’ in one sentence.

A second canvass replicating original timing and conditions to locate time-specific witnesses.

73
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What does ‘hold-back responsibility’ mean as an investigative failure?

Excessive secrecy: failing to share information inside the team, causing missed leads or duplication.

74
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Give two signs a fabricated witness report may be false.

Inconsistent timeline details; Inability to account for location or manner of occurrence accurately.

75
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What minimum personnel are advised for a detailed canvass?

At least two people working in pairs.

76
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State one key disadvantage of lost CCTV footage as seen in the Crosby case.

Overwriting after 28–30 days eliminates potentially decisive visual evidence of suspect movement.

77
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What database/search resource was cited as ‘good for managing cases’ in TPS?

Microsoft OneNote (within Microsoft 365).