AGHE 60 - 3rd Block

What are polyvalent vaccines?

Vaccines that contain MANY antigens
Ex: FeRCP, DHLLP

What are monovalent vaccines?

Vaccines that contain ONE antigen
Ex: Rabies, FELV

What is a modified live vaccine?

Microorganisms that are altered(attenuation) to lose their virulence to cause disease, YET retain antigenic properties to induce immune responses

What are side effects to MLVs?

1. Immunosuppression
2. Vaccine induced disease

What creates a stronger and more durable response, MLV or Killed vaccines?

MLV

What is a Killed vaccine?

Killed vaccines contain organisms inactivated by chemical or physical means.
-Requires larger antigenic dose

What is a subunit vaccine?

A vaccine that contains components rather than complete organism

What is an example of a Subunit vaccine?

Equine strangles

What is a Live vaccine?

Vaccine where pathogen injected into your body is a live organism, but weakened.

What are side effects of a Live vaccine?

1. Expensive
2. Contamination
3. Disease in person administering vaccine
4. Disease in animal being vaccinated

Give an example of a Live vaccine:

Brucella abortus strain 19 (Brucellosis)

Why must bacterins always be killed?

Must be killed or else the bacteria will replicate

What is an example of bacterin vaccine?

Bordetella

True/False: Improper storage and heat will inactivate vaccine.

True

What is more effective: bacterin or viral vaccines?

Viral vaccines

How do maternal antibodies alter vaccines?

Maternal antibodies cause vaccines failure by inhibiting a immune response

What are the risks of over vaccination?

Can cause vaccine induced feline sarcoma and immune mediated diseases

What are core vaccines for canines?

1. Parvovirus (MLV)
2. Canine Distemper (MLV)
3. Canine Adenovirus (MLV)
4. Rabies (Killed)

What is a toxoid vaccine?

Vaccine that produces immunity to a toxin rather than a virus/bacteria (Protects for 1 YEAR)

What is an example of a toxoid?

Tetanus toxoid (clostridium tetani)

What is significant about antiserums and antitoxins?

These type of vaccines are given after animals have been exposed to or effected by a specific microorganism or toxin

What is antiserum?

Serum containing antibodies which bind to the antigens triggered by a specific microorganism

How long must you wait to vaccinate after giving an antiserum?

At least 21 days

What is an example of a disease an antiserum is used on in livestock?

E. Coli

What is an antitoxin?

Antibodies (antiserum) against a specific toxin
Ex: Tetanus antitoxin

What species get more antitoxin vaccines?

Horses

What is a side effect of an antitoxin?

Allergic reactions

What is heterotypic immunity?

Immune response to one microorganism by immunizing with a different but antigenically related microorganism

What is a recombinant vaccine?

A genetically made vaccine utilizing bacteria/yeast to form SINGLE viral/bacterial PROTEIN antigens

How long is the window of vulnerability when an animal can be infected with virus?

2-5 weeks

What is the youngest age to start vaccines on puppies and kittens?

6 weeks

What age do you start the Bordetella vaccine?

8 to 12 weeks

What are the core canine vaccines?

1. Parvovirus 2. Canine Distemper 3. Canine Adenovirus-2 4. Rabies

What are core feline vaccines?

1. FPV (MLV)
2. Feline viral rhinotracheitis - FHV (MLV)
3. Feline calicivirus - FCV (MLV)
4. Rabies (Killed)
5. FELV (Killed)

What age do you start the Lyme disease vaccine?

9 to 12 weeks of age

What age do you start the Rabies vaccine?

8 weeks of age (4 months) -booster annually after 1 year of age
-After 1 year of age, booster good for 3 years

What age do you start the FELV vaccine?

Start as early as 6 weeks

What are some side effects reactions to vaccines?

1. V/D
2. Hives
3. Angiosarcoma (redness/swelling)
4. Anaphylaxis
5. Pain at injection site
6. Fibrosarcoma

Allergic reactions to vaccines can be causes by what two factors?

1. Adjuvants - agent used to carry antigen to enhance immune response
2. Preservatives - agent added to prevent organism growth

What are the core vaccines for equine?

1. Tetanus
2. Equine Encephalitis
3. Rhinopneumonitis (EHV)
4. Influenza
5. West Nile Virus

What percentage of dehydration do we see poor e/d and vomiting/diarrhea?

4% dehydration

What percentage of dehydration do we see the skin sluggish to return to normal position and dull eyes?

6% dehydration

What percentage of dehydration do we see skin stay in tented position with sunken in eyes?

8% dehydration

Should you get Specific Gravity level before or after giving fluids?

Before

15 drops/mL = ??

15 drops/mL = macro (white)

60 drops/mL = ??

60 drops/mL = micro (green)

What is the general calculation for fluid rate?

General: 1 mL/lb/hr (45 mL x Body Weight (kg)

What is the pH of blood?

7.4

What are crystalloids?

Sodium based electrolyte solutions that are commonly used to replace fluid loss
-Composition similar to plasma
-isotonic, hypertonic, hypotonic

What are examples of Isotonic fluids?

LRS
NaCl (0.9%)
0.45% NaCl + 2.5% Dextrose
P-Lyte
Normosol

What are examples of Hypertonic fluids?

50% Dextrose (NEVER give SQ)
9% NaCl (for brain injuries)

What are examples of Hypotonic fluids?

Sterile Water 5% Dextrose + Water (D5W)

What are colloids?

Large macromolecules restricted to plasma compartment that enhances the oncotic force of blood causing fluid to move into vascular space
(Starch molecule-doesn't lose water, just moves it elsewhere)

What are natural colloids?

whole blood and plasma

What are synthetic colloids?

Hetastarch and Dextran

What are the 4 reasons for blood transfusion?

1. Anemia
2. Coagulopathy
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Hypoproteinemia

What is the most common blood type in cats?

Type A

What is the most common blood type in dogs?

DEA 1 (DEA 1.1 negative - universal donor)
(DEA 1 positive - universal recipient)

True/False: Dogs do not have alloantibodies, thus a crossmatch should show compatibility and the first transfusion is safe.

True

What anticoagulant is used for blood donors?

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine (CPD-A)
**doesn't inhibit clotting factors
**can use heparin as a back up

True/False: You need to heat blood for transfusion before administration.

False; Warm to room temperature before administration.
DO NOT heat blood as it can denature

What are common blood transfusion reactions?

Fever
v/d
Phase 1-anaphylaxis
Phase 2-hemolytic

What are the 6 main leads on an ECG?

Lead I
Lead II
Lead III
Lead Avr
Lead Avl
Lead Avf

What is the purpose of an ECG?

Measures the electrical activity of the heart

What position must an animal be in for an ECG?

Right lateral recumbency

What is depolarization?

Contraction (systole)

What is repolarization?

Filling (diastole)

What is the "P" wave on an ECG?

Depolarization of the atria

What is the "QRS" wave on an ECG?

Depolarization of the ventricles

What is the T wave on an ECG?

Repolarization of ventricles

What is Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

A herpesvirus causing respiratory, genital, and encephalitis

Where do you give SQ injections on a cow?

Axillary or flank

What is shipping fever?

Severe respiratory disease associated with stress and shipping of young calves

What bacteria or virus may cause shipping fever?

Pasteurella (Parainfluenza virus 3 (PI-3))

True/False: Cows affected by shipping fever will have fibrin covered lungs postmortem

True

What is Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)?

A pestivirus characterized by bloody diarrhea, oral lesions/erosions, fever, hemorrhage and abortions

What causes a displaced abomasum in bovine?

-Fluid or gas accumulation in the abomasum
-Heavy grain feeding (corn)

What are some clinical signs of a displaced abomasum?

1. Ping on auscultation
2. Inappetence
3. Distended abomasum
4. Metabolic alkalosis

Is a left or right displaced abomasum more common?

Left displaced abomasum

What surgeries treat a displaced abomasum?

Omentopexy or abomasopexy

What is another name for Brucellosis?

Bangs disease

What is brucellosis?

A contagious disease characterized by abortions and infertility in both sexes

What diagnostic test is used on dairy cows with bloat?

Brucella Ring Test

What diagnostic test is used on beef cows with bloat?

Market Cattle Testing (MCT)

What ear do brucellosis ear tags go on?

Right ear

What is mastitis?

Inflammation of the mammary glands

What are the four types of mastitis?

Peracute Acute Subacute Subclinical

What is the diagnostic testing for mastitis?

California Mastitis Test (CMT)

What is Hardware Disease in cattle?

Indigestion of a sharp, metallic object that settles in the reticulum, can irritate or penetrate the lining of the stomach

What is Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)?

Fatal neurological disease caused by scrapie prion (An infectious protein)

What is another name for Bovine spongiform Encephalopathy?

Mad Cow Disease

True/False: Brucellosis and BSE are zoonotic diseases

True

What is Foot and Mouth disease in bovine?

A highly infectious viral disease causing oral lesions and ulcers

What does Vitamin E and Selenium Deficiency cause in livestock?

Muscle atrophy

What is Q-fever?

A gram-negative coccobacillus that causes abortions

What bacteria is responsible for Q-fever?

Coxiella burnetti

Is Q-fever zoonotic?

Yes zoonotic

What is another name for IBR?

Red Nose

What is Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE) in porcine?

A coronavirus disease of the small intestines that causes v/d in pigs

What is pseudorabies? (Aujeszkys Disease)

Herpesvirus that causes neurological disease in piglets and abortion in adult pigs