3- Network Operations

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These flashcards cover critical concepts from the Network Operations and Network Security sections, including high availability, disaster recovery, backup strategies, RAID, authentication, AAA, NAC, attacks, mitigation, wireless security, and hardening best practices.

Last updated 10:26 AM on 7/8/25
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127 Terms

1
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Which two technologies commonly rely on virtual IP addresses for high availability?

Clustering and load balancing

2
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In disaster‐recovery planning, which site type can be brought online the fastest?

A hot site

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Which disaster‐recovery site type is typically the least expensive to maintain?

A cold site

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What does RTO stand for in business continuity planning?

Recovery Time Objective – the maximum allowable time to restore a service after a failure

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MTTF is used to describe devices that are _.

Not repairable (Mean Time to Failure)

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If a server has two power supplies on one UPS and a generator-backed circuit, which single failure can it survive indefinitely?

Failure of one server power supply

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Primary purpose of a UPS during a lengthy power outage?

Keep systems running long enough to shut them down gracefully

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Which file property is most often used to decide whether a file is backed up?

File attributes (archive bit)

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Port aggregation provides greater throughput and .

Fault tolerance (link redundancy)

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What three services can a server cluster provide?

Fault tolerance, load balancing, and failover

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An active/passive NIC team primarily offers .

Fault tolerance

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Which backup site classification is defined mainly by the time required to activate it?

Cold, warm, and hot sites differ in activation time

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When comparing hard drives for RAID, which spec is most relevant to reliability?

MTBF – Mean Time Between Failures

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Which RAID levels offer the least usable disk space while still being fault tolerant?

RAID 1 and RAID 10

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Disk mirroring protects against drive failure; disk duplexing additionally protects against failure.

Controller

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RAID levels providing fault tolerance without parity are .

RAID 1 and RAID 10

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Which backup type does NOT clear archive bits?

Differential backup

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Grandfather-Father-Son rotation consists of backups.

Monthly (grandfather), weekly (father), and daily (son)

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A read-only copy of data taken at a precise moment is called a .

Snapshot

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Which storage method avoids version skew during backup?

Snapshots

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Full + daily incremental restore on Monday noon (full done Wednesday PM) requires how many jobs?

Six jobs (Wednesday full plus five incrementals)

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Why can hard-drive incremental backups often restore in one job?

Because disks are random-access devices (no tape rewinding)

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UPS, RAID 1, and clustering are fault-tolerance tools. Which is NOT?

SNMP

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Datacenter PDUs differ from power strips chiefly because of .

Higher input/output capacity and more outlets (all of the above)

25
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A firewall state backup includes its configuration – True or False?

True – state backup contains configuration data

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Preferred datacenter fire-suppression agent today?

HFC-125 (clean-agent gas)

27
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Concurrent Multipath Routing (CMR) supplies and .

Increased bandwidth and fault tolerance (and load balancing)

28
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First Hop Redundancy Protocols dynamically change which host setting?

Default gateway

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Give two examples of FHRPs.

VRRP and HSRP (also CARP)

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Major drawback of full mesh switch redundancy without STP tuning?

Broadcast storms

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Parallel redundant firewalls mainly provide and .

Fault tolerance and load balancing

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Active-active redundant servers add which advantage over active-passive?

Increased performance through load balancing

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Achieving full ISP link redundancy requires .

Different ISPs, different WAN links, and different routers

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A DMZ is also called a or network.

Perimeter network or screened subnet

35
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Windows Active Directory uses which authentication protocol?

Kerberos

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Requiring a smartcard and a PIN is an example of authentication.

Multifactor

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EAP is typically used with smartcards over remote access via .

EAP-TLS

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AAA stands for .

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

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What is Network Access Control (NAC) designed to enforce?

Health checks (patches, AV) before a device joins the network

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802.1X roles: supplicant, authenticator, and .

Authentication server

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In 802.1X, the supplicant is .

The client seeking access

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Default transport protocols: RADIUS uses UDP; TACACS+ uses .

TCP

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CIA triad – the ‘I’ stands for .

Integrity

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A purposely vulnerable host used to lure attackers is called a .

Honeypot

45
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Difference between vulnerability and exploit?

Vulnerability = weakness; exploit = code or method that takes advantage of that weakness

46
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Security monitoring + automated analysis platform acronym?

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)

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Granting users only permissions they need exemplifies .

Least privilege (often via role-based access)

48
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Zero-trust architecture is meant to limit movement.

Lateral

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Defense-in-depth often combines firewalls, segmentation, and .

Separation of duties (or other layered controls)

50
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Threat assessment estimates two key factors: and .

Likelihood and severity

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The act of hiring outsiders to legally hack your network is called .

Penetration testing

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Technology-based attack modifying packets in transit is an attack.

On-path (man-in-the-middle)

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Changing VLAN tags to reach another VLAN is called .

VLAN hopping

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Creating a rogue AP with same SSID for eavesdropping is an attack.

Evil twin

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Malware that encrypts data and demands payment is known as .

Ransomware

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Dictionary and brute-force are types of attacks.

Password-cracking

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Tailgating and shoulder surfing are examples of .

Social engineering

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MAC spoofing can bypass wireless filtering.

MAC

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DNS poisoning primarily disrupts .

Name resolution (redirects users)

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A botnet’s individual compromised computer is called a .

Zombie

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DDoS that leverages legitimate servers to echo traffic is .

Reflective (often amplified) DDoS

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Permanent DoS (PDoS) differs from typical DoS how?

It physically or logically damages the target so service cannot be restored without repair

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Bluesnarfing steals data over .

Bluetooth

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War chalking marks physical locations after reconnaissance.

War driving

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EAP provides authentication framework; which variant uses TLS directly?

EAP-TLS

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PEAP and EAP-FAST secure credentials by using .

Tunneled TLS sessions

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Geofencing in Wi-Fi limits access based on .

Physical location / signal footprint

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Disabling SSID broadcast offers weak security because attackers can .

Capture packets and read the SSID value

69
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One secure alternative to Telnet for device administration is .

SSH

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List two common default admin usernames on network OSes.

Administrator (Windows) and root (Linux/UNIX)

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DAI relies on tables learned via DHCP snooping to block ARP spoofing.

IP-to-MAC binding

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Flood guards in switches help stop attacks.

MAC flooding

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Root guard protects against rogue advertisements.

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

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File Integrity Monitoring primarily supports which compliance goal?

Demonstrating that sensitive files have not been altered (HIPAA/FISMA)

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Digital signatures provide integrity and .

Non-repudiation (authentication of sender)

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Encrypting with sender’s private key lets receiver verify .

That the message came from the claimed sender (non-repudiation)

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Encrypting with recipient’s public key ensures .

Only the recipient can decrypt (confidentiality)

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Firmware updates are patches applied to devices.

Hardware/embedded

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Rolling back a patch means .

Uninstalling it and returning to the previous version

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Wireless hardening tactics include encryption, auth, antenna placement and .

MAC filtering

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ACLs on a router chiefly provide .

Authorization (permitting or denying traffic)

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Server role separation means what?

Placing different critical services on separate servers/VMs to limit scope of compromise

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Default firewall policy blocking everything unless allowed is called .

Implicit deny

84
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Router Advertisement Guard protects against rogue messages affecting .

IPv6 default-gateway information

85
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Which OS password setting blocks use of simple dictionary words?

‘Passwords must meet complexity requirements’

86
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Disabling unused switch ports enhances security unless .

Ports are already isolated from users (e.g., no patch panel connection)

87
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Which devices commonly ship with well-known default credentials?

Wireless APs, routers, and managed switches

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Site-to-site vs. client-to-site describes two major categories of .

VPN connections

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Out-of-band management means what?

Admin traffic travels on a physically or logically separate channel from user data

90
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Badge readers, biometric locks, and access vestibules relate to security.

Physical

91
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Asset disposal policy should include before discarding hardware.

Factory reset or secure wipe of data

92
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What kind of DoS is created by zombies located worldwide?

Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS)

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Attack that retransmits captured authentication packets is a attack.

Replay

94
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‘Something you are’ authentication factor example

Fingerprint or retina pattern

95
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‘Something you do’ authentication factor example

Unique finger gesture or typing pattern

96
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Kerberos mitigates replay attacks using timestamps.

Time-stamped tickets and short lifetimes

97
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Which protocol secures SNMP management traffic?

SNMP v3 (adds auth & encryption)

98
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Control Plane Policing (CoPP) protects .

Router/switch CPU from traffic floods

99
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Private VLANs help with inside a single broadcast domain.

Micro-segmentation / isolation of hosts

100
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Changing the default VLAN away from VLAN 1 is a practice.

Switch hardening / best practice