WGU D236 Objective Assessment Pathophysiology Exam – Verified Questions and Answers for an A Grade

What are two pulmonary causes leading to respiratory acidosis?

a. Asthma and shortness of breath

b. Hyperventilation and fever

c. Cystic fibrosis and hypoventilation

d. Anemia and pain

c. Cystic fibrosis and hypoventilation

Which issue would a child with Neurobehavioral Disorder

Associated with Prenatal Alcohol Experts (HD-PAE) exhibit?

a. Nearsightedness

b. Trouble planning

c. Frequent nausea

d. Helpfulness

b. Trouble planning

Which sign is associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

(ALS)?

a. Impaired mental flexibility

b. Blurred vision

c. Head drop

d. Slowed thought processing

c. Head drop

Which classification of drugs can trigger hemolytic anemia?

a. Nitrates

b. Diuretics

c. Cephalosporins

d. CNS stimulants

c. Cephalosporins

A patient records documents headaches with memory defects.

The patient's color and temperature are unusual, and the patient

reports pain at night. Which condition is described?

a. Angina pectoris

b. Atherosclerosis

c. Myocardial infarction

d. Thrombophlebitis

d. Thrombophlebitis

Which condition is caused by Adenovirus?

a. Mononucleosis

b. Erythema infection

c. Gastroenteritis

d. Upper respiratory infection

d. Upper respiratory infection

Classify each condition as either an upper tract infection or a

lower tract infection. Answer options may be used more than

once or not at all. Select your answers from the pull-down list

Laryngitis - Upper

Rhinitis - Upper

Pneumonia - Lower

COPD - Lower

Pharyngitis - Upper

Asthma - Lower

Laryngitis - Upper, Rhinitis - Upper,

Pharyngitis - Upper, Pneumonia - Lower, COPD - Lower,

Asthma - Lower

Which two infections affect the lower respiratory tract? Choose

2 answers

a. Infectious mononucleosis

b. Respiratory mycoses

c. Acute laryngitis

d. Pulmonary tuberculosis

b. Respiratory mycoses

d. Pulmonary tuberculosis

Which symptom is associated with Systemic lupus

erythematosus (SLE)?

a. Arthralgias

b. Dark urine

c. Koilonychia

d. Tachycardia

a. Arthralgias

What is a symptom of malaria?

a. Warm over a vein

b. Myalgia

c. Tachycardia

d. Muscle spasms

b. Myalgia

What is a risk factor for malignant hypertension?

a. Cirrhosis of the liver

b. Kidney failure

c. Diabetes

d. Anemia

b. Kidney failure

A patient record indicates a type of hypertension that is typically

above 180/120 and can cause serious damage to organ tissue. It

was treated as a medical emergency. Which type of

hypertension did this patient have?

a. Pulmonary

b. Malignant

c. Essential

d. Renal

b. Malignant

A patient presents with fatigue, fever, and night sweats. An

echocardiogram showed vegetations. Which disease is

described?

a. Stenosis

b. Pericarditis

c. Myocarditis

d. Endocarditis

d. Endocarditis

Which type of anemia is characterized by insufficient or totally

absent RBC production and results in a patient having an

inability to fight infection and having a tendency to bleed?

a. Aplastic anemia

b. Folic acid deficiency anemia

c. Pernicious anemia

d. Iron deficiency anemia

a. Aplastic anemia

A patient record document reports fatigue, shortness of breath, and vomiting. The patient was given medication for crushing chest pain that radiated to the back and jaw. The patient's blood showed elevated cardiac enzyme levels. Which condition is described?

a. Congestive heart failure

b. Angina pectoris

c. Atrial fibrillation

d. Myocardial infarction

d. Myocardial infarction

What are known triggers for vaso-occlusive crises, such as

Sickle Cell Disease?

a. Alkalosis and insomnia

b. High-fat diet and hyperoxia

c. Acidosis and dehydration

d. Reduced stress and warm environmental temperature

c. Acidosis and dehydration

The principal diagnosis in a patient's discharge summary is

Bell's palsy. What is a condition that causes this?

a. Lyme disease

b. Cerebral aneurysm

c. Alzheimer's disease

d. Cerebrovascular accident

a. Lyme disease

What are the common signs of retinoblastoma?

a. Peripheral shadows and seeing black spots

b. Clear iris and cloudy pupil

c. Halos around lights and photopsia

d. Strabismus and leukocoria

d. Strabismus and leukocoria

What are the common symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis?

a. Abnormal Sweating

b. Sudden Edema

c. Constipation

d. Weakness

d. Weakness

What are samples of peripheral neuropathy?

a. Uncontrolled movements and muscle weakness

b. Chest pain and leg edema

c. Hyperreflexia and enhanced sensation of the lower extremities

d. Jugular vein distention and hematomas

a. Uncontrolled movements and muscle

weakness

A patient who has diabetes presents with mild fever, erythema,

and edema in the groin area with drainage. Gram stain reveals a

staphylococcal bacterial infection. Which condition is

described?

a. Dermatophytosis

b. Carbuncle

c. Pediculosis pubis

d. Keratosis plans

b. Carbuncle

A middle-aged female presents with symptoms of muscle tenderness and fatigue. She also reports the death of her grandmother, which occurred three months ago, as the time

period in which she has noticed an increase in symptoms. Which condition is described?

a. Fibromyalgia

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Polymyositis

d. Tendonitis

a. Fibromyalgia

What is a common symptom of Multiple Sclerosis?

a. Abnormal Sweating

b. Sudden Edema

c. Constipation

d. Weakness

d. Weakness

A stool specimen examination reveals fecalith and bacteria. A

CT scan shows pouch-like herniation in the sigmoid colon. The

patient is asymptomatic, and there is no evidence of bleeding.

Which condition is described?

a. Inguinal hernia

b. Hemorrhoids

c. Peptic ulcer

d. Diverticulosis

d. Diverticulosis

Which disease is communicable and paralyzes muscles as early

as six hours from exposure?

a. Lyme disease

b. Malaria

c. Botulism

d. West Nile Virus

c. Botulism

Progress notes indicate that a patient's wound has become more

painful, swollen, and red. Based on this information, which type

of infection is indicated?

a. Myelitis

b. MRSA

c. Molluscum contagiosum

d. Meningococcemia

b. MRSA

What characterizes Type 2 myocardial infarction?

a. Atherosclerotic plaque rupture

b. Lack of oxygen

c. Da without biomarkers

d. Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

b. Lack of oxygen

What describes the functions of diffusion?

a. It is the process by which molecules move from high-

concentration areas to low-concentration areas.

b. It is the process by which solvent molecules pass through a

semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into

a more concentrated one.

c. It is a process by which certain molecules pass through the

plasma membrane with the help of carrier proteins.

d. It is a process by which a substance requires energy to pass

through a membrane against a concentration gradient.

a. It is the process by which molecules move from high-

concentration areas to low-concentration areas.

Which best describes the difference between osteoarthritis and

rheumatoid arthritis?

a. The pathophysiology includes joint swelling and deformity,

and intense inflammation with joint erosion.

b. It is an autoimmune disease with an unknown antigen.

c. The most commonly affected joints are the hand and

metacarpophalangeal joints.

d. It is a degenerative joint disease caused by aging or excessive

trauma to a joint.

a. The pathophysiology includes joint swelling and deformity,

and intense inflammation with joint erosion.

(Picture of a leg) Which type of curvature of the spine is shown

in the image?

a. Kyphosis

b. Scoliosis

c. Lordosis

d. Normal

c. Lordosis

A middle-aged female presents with symptoms of muscle

tenderness and fatigue. She also reports the death of her

grandmother, which occurred three months ago, as the time

period in which she has noticed an increase in symptoms. Her

impact exercise and acupuncture.

a. Fibromyalgia

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Polymyositis

d. Tendonitis

a. Fibromyalgia

A patient was diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease

(PID). Which related result might be noted on this patient's

record?

a. Elevated RBC count15 | Page

b. Elevated FSH levels

c. Elevated C-reactive protein

d. Elevated BUN

c. Elevated C-reactive protein

What does the renal system do to deal with disturbances in the

acid-base balance?

a. Prevent the absorption of sodium and potassium

b. Increases ventilation to drop the H+ ion level

c. Blocks the arterial walls from absorbing electrolytes

d. Regulates the excretion or reabsorption of H+ and HCO-3

d. Regulates the excretion or reabsorption of H+ and HCO-3

What are the buffer systems that absorb or donate H+ ions to prevent large swings in blood pH? Choose 2 answers.

a. The atrial natriuretic buffering system

b. The intracellular fluid buffering system

c. The diffusion and osmosis buffering system

d. The renal buffering system

e. The carbonic-acid and bicarbonate system

f. The phosphate buffering system

e. The carbonic-acid and bicarbonate system

A patient's records indicate a diagnosis of a staphylococcal skin infection (often referred to as a "superbug"), which caused a boil

to develop on the patient's buttock. Symptoms included red, swollen skin with pus.

a. Scabs

b. Itchiness

c. Scaliness

d. Warm to touch

d. Warm to touch

Which accurately describes a chromosomal alteration?

a. Turners' syndrome is a disorder in which a female has completely or partially missing X chromosomes

b. Type 2 DM (T2DM) is caused by family history, behavior,

and other factors

c. Hypertension is always linked to the Y chromosomes and

environmental factors

d. Y chromosomes as hemophilia is associated with the X-

chromosomes

a. Turners' syndrome is a disorder in which a female has completely or partially missing X chromosomes

What is the primary system responsible for maintaining fluid

homeostasis within the body?

a. Interatrial fluid (IAF)18 | Page

b. Extra natriuretic fluid [ENF)

c. D-type diastolic peptides (DDP)

d. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system [RAAS]

d. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system [RAAS]

What is a symptom found in patients with stage 1 Lyme disease?

a. Tremors

b. Bull's eye rash

c. Nausea

d. Swollen lymph nodes

b. Bull's eye rash

What are the characteristics of helper T cells?

a. They activate B cells and produce small cells called cytokines.

b. They destroy infected cells by producing proteins targeting cell membranes.

c. They are non-responsive during active infections.

d. They bind to infected cells and are activated by cytokines.

a. They activate B cells and produce small cells called cytokines.

What are two types of benign tumors? Choose 2 answers

a. Adenoma

b. Adenocarcinoma

c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

d. Osteoma

a. Adenoma

d. Osteoma

Which term describes a solution such as 0.9% NaCl (normal

saline) relative to red blood cells?

a. Hypotonic

b. Isotonic

c. Hypertonic

d. Exotonic

b. Isotonic

A patient's record indicates treatment via cryoablation. For

which type of cancer is this patient being treated?

a. Breast cancer

b. Prostate cancer

c. Ovarian cancer

d. Testicular cancer

b. Prostate cancer

A female patient presents with chronic dyspareunia, pelvic pain,

increased abdominal girth, fever, and vomiting. After an HE4

test and positive abdominal ultrasound. Which condition is

described?

a. Ovarian tumor

b. Dysmenorrhea

c. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

d. Benign fibroadenoma

a. Ovarian tumor

A patient presents with decreased alertness, mental confusion,

skin that is pale and scaly, weight loss, easy bruising or

bleeding, and decreased urine output. Which condition is this

patient showing signs?

a. Renal calculi

b. End-stage renal disease

c. Hydronephrosis

d. Polycystic kidney disease

b. End-stage renal disease

Which is a common cause of delayed puberty?

a. Urinary tract infection

b. Premature birth

c. Chronic illness

d. High-fat die

c. Chronic illness

What is a clinical presentation of Human Papillomavirus

(HPV)?

a. Diarrhea

b. Condyloma acuminata

c. Penile edema

d. Urethritis

b. Condyloma acuminata

Which is a common risk factor for cholecystitis?

a. Frequent dietary changes

b. Female sex

c. History of blood clots

d. Chronic dehydration

b. Female sex

What is a known cause of erectile dysfunction?

a. Obesity

b.Excessive caffeine use

c. Cancer

d. Heart disease

d. Heart disease

A patient reports nausea, vomiting, dull abdominal ache, and

pruritus. On physical examination, edema of the legs, ascites,

and jaundice were documented. The patient has a history of

long-term acetaminophen therapy. Laboratory findings included

an aminotransferase. Which condition is described?

a. Cirrhosis

b. Cholelithiasis

c. Pancreatitis

d. Hepatitis A

a. Cirrhosis

A 50-year-old patient who works as a sandblaster has the following symptoms: dyspnea, cough with sputum, tachypnea,

and pulmonary hypertension. A chest X-ray shows small nodular lesions throughout, but mainly concern. Which

condition is described?

a. Silicosis

b. Bronchiectasis

c. Asbestosis

d. Pulmonary tuberculosis

a. Silicosis

Which is a common symptom of dysmenorrhea?

a. Fatigue

b. Urinary frequency

c. Hematuria

d. Constipation

a. Fatigue

Which statement represents the difference between ulcerative

colitis and Crohn's disease?

a. Ulcerative colitis represents one specific form of Crohn's disease.

b. Ulcerative colitis is more prevalent in younger individuals, while Crohn's disease is more prevalent in those over 40

c. Ulcerative colitis is included in irritable bowel syndrome, while Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease.

d. Ulcerative colitis affects the mucosal layers of the intestinal wall, while Crohn's disease affects the whole thickness of the intestinal wall

d. Ulcerative colitis affects the mucosal layers of the intestinal

wall, while Crohn's disease affects the whole thickness of the

intestinal wall

A bone marrow biopsy result shows fatty tissue with

megakaryocytes and large bone marrow cells with multiple

nuclei. The patient is placed on a bone marrow recipient list.

Which condition does this describe?

a. Iron-deficiency anemia

b. Acute blood-loss anemia

c. Pernicious anemia

d. Aplastic anemia

d. Aplastic anemia

What are two phases of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?

Choose 2 answers.

a. Homogeneous phase

b. Developmental phase

c. Dynamic phase

d. Latent phase

e. Blast Crisis phase

f. Accelerated phase

e. Blast Crisis phase

f. Accelerated phase

A patient record indicates the following: Chief complaint: Lump around the neck region, breathing difficulty, and discomfort in swallowing. General history: The patient is a woman from Haiti who developed this condition during her adolescence. Physical exam: A visible lump on the base of the neck and above the sternum. Pain scale: 6 (patient states that sometimes it causes sudden onset pain). Diagnostic test: Thyroid ultrasound revealed a non-toxic lump. Radioimmunoassay test results revealed abnormal TSH levels. Treatment: Increased dietary supplementation of iodine; nutritional supplements prescribed. Which thyroid condition is being described?

a. Endemic or colloid goiter

b. Hyperthyroidism

c. Graves' disease

d. Thyroid cancer

a. Endemic or colloid goiter

Which parasite causes malaria?

a. Plasmodium

b. Enterobius vermicularis

c. Trichuris trichiura

d. Entamoeba histolytica

a. Plasmodium

What is one of the two classifications of Amyotrophic Lateral

Sclerosis (ALS)?

a. Nonproliferative

b. Acute

c. Sporadic

d. Exuciatic

c. Sporadic

Which assessment findings are associated with chronic

obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

a. Bradycardia and decreased urine output

b. Weak, thready pulse and warm, dry skin

c. Dyspnea and audible wheezing

d. Unlabored respirations and leg edema

c. Dyspnea and audible wheezing

A patient's record indicates a presentation of the following

symptoms: Hematuria, Proteinuria, Oliguria. Which condition

may this patient be diagnosed with?29 | Page

a. Glomerulonephritis

b. Pleuritis

c. Cystitis

d. Urethritis

a. Glomerulonephritis

What are the complications of tympanic membrane perforation?

a. Short-term hearing loss and rhinitis

b. Middle ear infections and mastoiditis

c. Meningitis and blurred vision

d. Intracranial infections and bilateral hearing loss

b. Middle ear infections and mastoiditis

A 70-year-old female patient follows up on X-ray results. Her original complaint was a nasal ulcer that would not heal. She reports a dry cough, shortness of breath, and a 10-pound weight loss during the past month. Her husband worked for a nuclear power plant for 30 years. X-ray: Granuloma formation and

diffuse interstitial pneumonitis. Which condition is described?30 | Page

a. Bronchiectasis

b. Asthma

c. Berylliosis

d. Pulmonary tuberculosis

c. Berylliosis

A patient presents with fatigue, fever, and night sweats. An

echocardiogram shows vegetations. Which disease is described?

a. Pericarditis

b. Stenosis

c. Myocarditis

d. Endocarditis

d. Endocarditis

Which condition allows blood to flow back into the left atrium

from the left ventricle?

a. Mitral valve insufficiency

b. Aortic valve insufficiency

c. Aortic valve stenosis

d. Mitral valve stenosis

a. Mitral valve insufficiency

A primary care physician documented the following symptoms

and history in a patient's record: persistent abdominal pain

radiating to the back, anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. The

laboratory report showed glycosuria and hyperglycemia. An

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography was

conclusive and revealed the patient had which condition?

a. Colorectal cancer

b. Liver cancer

c. Gastrointestinal cancer

d. Pancreatic cancer

d. Pancreatic cancer

The patient also had childhood rheumatic fever and atrial

circulation. Which condition is described?

a. Mitral stenosis

b. Ventricular hypertrophy

c. Atrium dystrophy

d. Ventricular septal defect

a. Mitral stenosis

Which sign is associated with acute blood loss?

a. Expedited capillary refill time

b. Decreased urine output

c. Retrosternal crushing chest pain

d. Flank pain

b. Decreased urine output

What are two possible causes of peripheral neuropathy? Choose

2 answers:

a. Vitamin B12 deficiency

b. Lead poisoning

c. Brain attack

d. Cardiac arrest

a. Vitamin B12 deficiency and b. Lead

poisoning

A 58-year-old male patient presents with involuntary muscle

contractions, muscle weakness, atrophy, and twitching in the

lower extremities. An electromyography is ordered, and a

muscle biopsy is performed. The patient is subsequently

prescribed an antiglutamate drug to treat the condition. Which

diagnosis is described?

a. Multiple sclerosis

b. Parkinson's disease

c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

d. Restless syndrome

c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Which disorder is a cause of secondary hypertension?

a. Obstructive sleep apnea

b. Tuberculosis

c. Polycythemia

d. Endocarditis

a. Obstructive sleep apnea

What are known triggers for vaso-occlusive crises, such as

Sickle Cell Disease?

a. Alkalosis and insomnia

b. High-fat diet and hyperoxia

c. Acidosis and dehydration

d. Reduced stress and warm environmental temperature

c. Acidosis and dehydration

A patient's record documents report of fatigue, shortness of breath, and vomiting. The patient was given medication for crushing chest pain that radiated to the neck and jaw. The patient's blood test showed elevated cardiac enzyme levels.

Which condition is described?

a. Myocardial infarction

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Angina pectoris

a. Myocardial infarction

What are common signs associated with Down syndrome?

a. Flattened nose and a single palmar crease on the hands

b. Hypertension and hypertonia

c. Crescent-shaped red blood cells and missing wisdom teeth

d. Widened eyes and a long neck

a. Flattened nose and a single palmar crease on

the hands

How does your body respond to an infection?

T cells produce cytokines, which stimulate B

cells. B cells produce antibodies.

What is the role of DNA changes in congenital abnormalities?

Mutations in genes or chromosomal

abnormalities

How does development disrupt congenital abnormalities?

Alterations of DNA

What describes factors that disrupt homeostasis and how do

disruptions affect wellbeing?

(ex) Fluid and electrolyte shifts can cause

nausea/vomiting or dysrhythmias.

What is RAAS?

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system: 1.

Reduced blood flow causes kidneys to release renin > produce

angiotensin I > converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II >

vasoconstriction > release aldosterone > kidneys conserve

sodium and water > result: less water lost in urine and blood

pressure maintained.

What is DKA?

Increased anion gap, decreased HCO3

How do kidneys compensate for alkalosis?

Retain H+ and excrete HCO3

What electrolyte increases with untreated acidosis?

Potassium

What is West Nile Virus?

Transmitted through the bite of an infected

mosquito. Severe signs and symptoms: high fever, headache, and stiff neck

What is Lyme disease?

Tick-borne disease caused by the spirochete

Borrelia burgdorferi.

What is Erythema infectiosum?

A febrile upper respiratory illness in a child

followed by the sudden appearance of red, flushed cheeks, "fifth

disease"

What are obesity and diabetes risk factors for in a child?

Spina bifida

What is Trousseau's sign?

Arm/carpal spasm associated with

hypocalcemia

What is the cause and sign of spina bifida?

Results from failure of neural tube to close.

Sign - fluid-filled sac on lower back.

Who is hemophilia more common in?

Males

What does prenatal exposure to alcohol include?

ND-PAE, decreased brain function, FAS

What are connective vs muscle tissue disorders?

Connective - RA, Scleroderma, Lupus; Muscle

- MS, Muscular dystrophy, Myasthenia Gravis

What is Lupus?

Inflammatory disorder characterized by joint

pain and butterfly rash

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

It is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies

attack own ACh receptors. This causes weakness of skeletal

muscles over the course of the day, along with ptosis, double

vision, and difficulty swallowing.

What is dermatitis?

Inflammation of the skin

What is eczema?

Noninfectious, inflammatory skin disease

characterized by redness, blisters, scabs, and itching

What is a decubitus ulcer?

Sore caused by lying down for long periods of

time

What are fungal infections?

Superficial, localized skin conditions or deep

tissue infections caused by exposure to spores, may or may not

be transmitted

What is a benign neoplasm?

Noncancerous growths, stationary, distinct

borders

What is a malignant neoplasm?

Uncontrolled new tissue growth, irregular

borders, spreads

What is osteoporosis?

The loss of bone mass often due to age, causing

the bones to become porous, brittle, and easily fractured.

What is osteomalacia?

Disease marked by softening of the bone caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency

What is myoglobin?

Red pigment that stores oxygen in muscle cells