Micro2 X4: Ch 50, 51, 52

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Last updated 2:40 PM on 3/17/26
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61 Terms

1
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Parasitic infections are....

globally prevalent

2
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What major parasitic diseases cause significant morbidity and mortality?

malaria, schistosomiasis, hookworm

3
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What does disease severity depend on? Esp in what?

parasite burden, especially in helminth infections such as hookworm anemia.

4
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What do parasites tend to avoid doing?

avoid killing their host

5
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What does parasitic disease usually result from?

chronic or heavy infection rather than acute toxicity.

6
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What are many human parasitic infections the result of? What do they require?

-zoonoses

-requiring animal hosts

7
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What host do Taenia saginata require?

cattle

8
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What kind of hosts are humans considered for parasites?

dead-end hosts

9
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How do protozoa replicate? What does this mean? Examples?

-replicate within the host, enabling disease from very small inocula

-Giardia, Cryptosporidium

10
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What is the importance of cysts? Example of parasite that does this?

-enable environmental survival and fecal-oral transmission for many GI protozoa

-Giardia

11
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Where do Helminths not multiply? Explain their infectious form?

-Helminths do NOT multiply within humans

-one infectious form → one adult worm; burden reflects cumulative environmental exposure.

12
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What is central to a parasites ability for chronic infection? What are two examples?

-Immune evasion

-schistosomes coat themselves with host proteins

-trypanosomes undergo antigenic variation

13
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What determine parasitic infection patterns? What are two examples?

-Tissue and species tropisms

-P. vivax requires Duffy antigen

-temperature differences dictate Leishmania disease forms

14
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What may parasitic pathology result from? Especially in what case? Examples?

-Pathology may result from host immune responses

-especially chronic inflammation

-schistosomiasis, filariasis, cysticercosis

15
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What is a characteristic of invasive helminth infections? What is it driven by?

-Eosinophilia

-driven by Th2 cytokines and IgE-mediated responses

16
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When may long term complications from parasitic infections arise?

years to decades later

17
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What are some potential long-term complications from parasitic infections?

portal hypertension, bladder cancer, neurocysticercosis, and chronic Chagas disease

18
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What parasites are portal hypertension and bladder cancer associated with?

-portal hypertension = S. mansoni

-bladder cancer = S. haematobium

19
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How to control parasitic diseases?

life-cycle interruption, including sanitation, vector control, mass drug administration, and (rarely) vaccines

20
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What do bloodstream protozoa do? What does it cause? Examples of protozoa that do this?

-infect and destroy RBCs, causing anemia and systemic symptoms

-malaria and babesiosis

21
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What are examples of tissue-invasive protozoa and what do they cause?

Toxoplasma, Trypanosoma brucei, and T. cruzi

-cause organ-specific disease--> brain, heart, eyes

22
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What five plasmodium species infect humans?

P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, P. knowlesi.

23
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How is malaria transmitted?

via the female Anopheles mosquito, injecting sporozoites, the infectious stage

24
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Describe the hepatic and erythrocytic stages of malaria?

-Hepatic stage is asymptomatic

-erythrocytic stage produces symptoms--> fever, anemia, paroxysms

25
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What do P. vivax and P. ovale form? What does this cause? Treatment?

-P. vivax and P. ovale form hypnozoites, causing relapsing malaria

-treatment requires primaquine/tafenoquine

26
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What does P. falciparum infect? What does it lead to?

-infects RBCs of all ages, leading to the highest parasitemia and greatest mortality risk

27
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What does PfEMP-1-mediated cytoadherence cause?

-sequestration, microvascular obstruction, and severe complications (e.g., cerebral malaria)

28
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What is classic malarial paroxysm?

synchronized RBC rupture → cytokine surge (TNF, IL-1) → fever/chills.

29
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diagnosis of malaria

-Microscopy (thick & thin smears) = gold standard

-Rapid Antigen Detection Tests are rapid but less sensitive at low parasitemia

30
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What does Chloroquine do? How? What issue may occur?

-kills parasites by blocking heme detoxification in the food vacuole

31
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How does Chloroquine resistance occur?

via efflux pumps

32
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What does Chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum require for treatment?

alternative agents (atovaquone- proguanil, artemether-lumefantrine, quinine + doxycycline)

33
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What must malaria prophylaxis match? What does this mean?

-match regional resistance patterns—chloroquine ineffective in most of Africa, Asia, South America

34
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What does Babesia microti do? How is it transmitted? What else has the same vector?

-infects RBCs directly (no liver stage)

-transmitted by Ixodes tick--> same vector as Lyme disease

35
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What do Babesia form and what are these called? What is it often confused with?

-forms tetrads--> "Maltese cross"

-can be confused with P. falciparum on smear

36
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Babesiosis treatment

-atovaquone + azithromycin

-severe cases may require exchange transfusion

37
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Toxoplasma gondii transmission and host

-ingestion of tissue cysts (undercooked meat) or oocysts (cat feces)

-cats are the definitive host

38
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What are the risks for immunocompromised patients (eg AIDS patients) with toxoplasmosis? How are they treated?

-ring-enhancing brain lesions

-treated with pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine/clindamycin

39
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How are intestinal/ vaginal protozoa classified by?

classified by motility and life cycles

40
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What are examples of intestinal/ vaginal protozoa?

amebae, flagellates, apicomplexans, and microsporidia

41
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What do entamoeba histolytica cause, via what? What is significant about this?

-amebiasis with classic flask-shaped ulcers and potential liver abscesses via portal spread

-microscopy cannot distinguish it from nonpathogenic look-alikes

42
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E. histolytica transmission

fecal-oral

43
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Main reservoir of E. histolytica?

asymptomatic cyst shedders are the main reservoir—diarrheal patients mostly shed noninfectious trophozoites

44
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What is needed for E. histolytica pathogenesis?

-adherence via Gal-GalNAc lectin

-contact-dependent killing (amebapores),

-phagocytosis of host cells

45
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What type of immunity is essential for E. histolytica?

Cell-mediated immunity

46
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What should individuals infected with E. histolytica not do? Why?

-take steroids

-they predispose to severe disseminated amebiasis by blunting this cell-mediated immunity

47
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diagnosis of amebiasis

requires antigen detection or PCR, since microscopy cannot distinguish pathogenic from nonpathogenic Entamoeba species

48
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treatment of amebiasis

-requires two steps: metronidazole for tissue disease followed by a luminal agent (paromomycin/iodoquinol) to clear cysts

49
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What does Giardia lamblia cause? Why?

causes malabsorptive diarrhea due to non-invasive attachment to the duodenum/jejunum

50
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What is significant about Giardia lamblia cysts?

cysts are chlorine-resistant, enabling waterborne outbreaks

51
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Giardia pathogensis is (blank) not (blank)

functional, invasive

52
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Giardia pathogenesis? What can this lead to?

-tight junction disruption, villous blunting, and fat malabsorption

-steatorrhea (excretion of excess fat in stool) and vitamin deficiencies

53
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Why can cryptosporidium oocysts cause large outbreaks?

-Cryptosporidium oocysts are chlorine-resistant, causing major waterborne outbreaks (e.g., Milwaukee 1993)

54
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What can cryptosporidium oocysts cause in AIDS patients?

evere persistent diarrhea in AIDS patients

55
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Where does Cryptosporidium complete its life cycle?

intestinal microvilli

56
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What does severity of Cryptosporidium infection depend on?

determined by immune status—self-limited in immunocompetent patients, chronic in immunocompromised

57
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What does Cyclospora require for maturation? What does this mean?

-requires environmental maturation (sporulation), so freshly passed oocysts are noninfectious

58
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What are Cyclospora outbreaks strongly associated with?

contaminated produce

59
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How is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted? Symptoms?

-sexually transmitted only

-causes frothy vaginitis in women

-is often asymptomatic in men

60
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Trichomonas vaginalis diagnosis

wet mount or Nucleic Acid Amplification test

61
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treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis

-Metronidazole (single dose) is first-line for trichomoniasis,

-both partners must be treated to prevent reinfection

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