Unit 3 iClickers

septic shock can result from using antibiotics to treat:

gram negative bacterial infections

Arthropods provide a portal of exit for microbes via the

blood

Which one of the following is not a first line of defense

fever

Which one of the following is classified as an agranulocyte?

monocyte

which one of the following is not true about normal microbiota

they are present only for a relatively short time

Escherichia coli synthesizing vitamins K and B in the large intestine would be an example of which type of symbiosis?

mutualism

Diseases not transmitted from one host to another are called

noncommunicable

A patient experiences pain and discomfort. These changes in the patient's body function are referred to as

symptoms

What term is used to describe a disease that develops slowly and is likely to continue to recur for long periods

chronic

A disease acquired by many people in a given area in a relatively short period of time is called a(n)

epidemic

Which one of the following is not a predisposing factor affecting the occurrence of disease

nationality

A period of illness is immediately followed by a(n)

period of decline

Which one of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet transmission?

Malaria

The spread of pathogens via contaminated water is an example of ________ transmission.

vehicle

Which one of the following is not a factor that contributes to healthcare associated infections

normal microbiota on the patient

Traditionally, health care associated infections were called _____ infections

nonsocomial

Which one of the following control measures is not used to prevent healthcare associated infections

increased use of antibiotics

Which one of the following would NOT be a way in which influenza is transmitted?

droplets

The easiest and most frequently traveled portal of entry for infectious microorganisms is the

respiratory tract

The degree of pathogenicity of an organism is known as the

virulence

What is the preferred portal of entry for chlamydia?

genitourinary tract

Communities of microbes that cling to surfaces and share available nutrients are called

biofilms

The outer portion of gram negative cell walls contain

endotoxins

Proteins secreted by pathogens that bind iron are known as

siderophores

Substances produced by virus-infected cells that protect neighboring uninfected cells from infection are called

interferons

Which one of the following refers to the visible effects of a viral infection?

cytopathic effects

What are the granules found in the cytoplasm or nucleus of some virus-infected cells?

inclusion bodies

Which one of the following is NOT a way fungi cause disease?

by using antigenic variation

What is the action of bacterial kinases

to break down fibrin

Which one of the following organisms produces saxitoxin?

alga

What is the causative agent of elephantiasis?

Wuchereria bancrofti

Septic shock can result from using antibiotics to treat

gram negative bacterial infections

toxins produced by some gram negative bacteria that damage DNA are called

genotoxins

chemicals released by defensive cells that regulate intensity and duration of immune response are called

cytokines

Generally, antibodies recognize and interact with specific regions on antigens called

epitopes

Plasma cells are formed after the proliferation of which type of cell?

B cell

T dependent atigen are usually

proteins

T independent antigen are usually

polysaccharides

Vaccination is frequently the only feasible method of controlling disease caused by

viruses

Which one of the following vaccine types more closely mimics an actual infection

live attenuated vaccines

The Salk polio vaccine is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine.

inactivated killed

The ciliary escelator functions by moving microbes

toward the throat

The low pH of the skin is due to the production of

sebum

The substance in perspiration that breaks down cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria is

lysozome

Which one of the following leukocyte types functions to produce toxins against helminth parasites?

eosinophils

Which one of the following is classified as an agranulocyte?

monocyte

Which of the following is/are NOT a second line of defense?

peristalsis

The attraction of phagocytes to microorganisms is called

chemotaxis

Which white blood cell dominates during the initial phase of a bacterial infection?

neutrophil

Fixed macrophages that are found in the liver are called

kupffer cells

Phagocytes contain ________ that allow attachment of pathogens.

toll-like receptors

During ingestion, pseudopods of a phagocyte fuse, surrounding the microorganism in a(n)

phagosome

Complement proteins are numbered

C1 to C9

Interferons are produced by certain animal cells after being infected by

viruses

Some bacteria evade the complement system by means of their

capsules

how many classes of antibodies are there

5

A typical antibody monomer has

two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains

Generally, antibodies recognize and interact with specific regions on antigens called

epitopes

The class of antibody that exists as a pentamer is

IgM

T-dependent antigens are usually

proteins

An antigenic foreign substance that has a low molecular weight is called a(n)

hapten

While large polysaccharides can be found in some antigens, most antigens are composed of

proteins

The process by which antigens are coated with antibodies or complement proteins that enhance their phagocytosis is called

opsonization

The strength of the bond between an antigen and antibody is called

affinity

The first antibody B cells make during primary response to an antigen is

IgM

Maturation of the T cells takes place in the

thymus

Which cells combat autoimmunity as their primary function?

T regulatory cells

Gateway cells in the gastrointestinal tract where antigens are taken up and transferred to APCs are called

M cells

When most of the population is immune, the population is said to possess _______ immunity

herd

Which blood type(s) can be recieved by someone who is type A

A and O

Hemolytic disease of the newborn results in the destruction of which cells in a fetus

red blood cells

HIV is able to evade immune defenses by

undergoing rapid antigenic changes

The birth of modern chemotherapy is credited to the efforts of

Paul Ehrlich

Which one of the following antimicrobials has the broadest spectrum of activity

tetracyline

If one measures a large zone of inhibition in a disk-diffusion test, one can assume that the bacteria are

sensitive to the antibiotic

vaccination is frequently the only feasible method of controlling diseases caused by

viruses

For which one of the following dieases does a vaccine currently not exist

hepatitis C

Which one of the following vaccine types more closely mimics an actual infection?

Live attenuated vaccines

Which one of the following vaccines uses only the antigenic fragments of a microorganism that best stimulate an immune response?

subunit vaccines

Which one of the following has/have been added to vaccines to increase the effectiveness of antigens?

adjuvants

Antibody molecules that are produced by a single hydridoma clone are called

monoclonal antibodies

Which one of the following involves the reaction of soluble antigens with IgG or IgM antibodies to form lattices?

precipitation reaction

Immunoelectrophoresis is an essential part of

the western blot test

The indirect ELISA test differs from the direct ELISA test in that indirect ELISA detects

antibodies

What are adsorbed to the well on the microtiter plate in the first step of a direct ELISA

antibodies

A patient's blood did NOT have any antibody titer before an illness but has a significant titer while the disease is progressing. This phenomenon, which occurs in HIV infections, is called

seroconversion

Type I reactions often occur how long after reexposure to an antigen

2 to 30 minutes

Which blood type can someone who is type A blood receive?

A and O

Localized anaphylaxis is usually associated with antigens that enter via

inhalation

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of which type of autoimmune disease?

cell mediated autoimmune reaction

The condition in which blood platelets are destroyed by drug-induced cytotoxic reactions is known as

Thrombocytopenic purpura

Cancer cells in the body being eliminated by the immune system is an example of

immunologic surveillance

Stem cells that can generate all other types of cells are termed

pluripotent

What type of response do the immunocompetent cells in transplanted bone marrow mount against the tissue into which they have been transplanted?

cell mediated immune response

HIV destroys

CD4+ T cells

Seroconversion for HIV can take as long as

3 months

Which one of the following is not an obstacle in developing an HIV vaccine

lack of a source of virus to produce vaccine

What was the first antibiotic (not antimicrobial) discovered

Penicillin

More than half of our antibiotics are produced by species of

Streptomyces

Which one of the following groups of pathogens are the easiest to treat antimicrobial agents

bacteria