3.06 EMI Test

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38 Terms

1

Where there is no evidence of a primary tumour, with no lymph node metastases and no distant metastases

T0, N0, M0

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2

Jane has a tumor of 4cm or less, which has spread to 1 or more lymph nodes on the opposite side of the primary cancer, but none larger than 6cm. The cancer has not spread to other parts of her body. What TNM staging would she be?

T0-T2, N2, M0

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3

With the various TNM Staging categories, what would indicate that the patient's cancer diagnosis would be catagorised as Stage 1?

T1, N0, M0

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4

Determine the TNM staging category that characterises a tumour as being large and invasive, having extended to nearby lymph nodes, while exhibiting no signs of distant metastasis.

T4, N2, M0

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5

What is the term used for a cancer that begins in mucous secretory cells lining organs?

Adenocarcinoma

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6

What is the term for a benign tumor that originates from the glandular cells in the oral cavity?

Adenoma

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7

Type of cancer that originates in the cells that line the surfaces and cavities of the body, including the skin, organs, and glands

Carcinoma

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8

A 45-year-old female patient presents to the dental clinic with concerns of tooth mobility and gum recession. Clinical examination reveals an excessive formation of fibrous tissue in the periodontal ligament.

Hyperplasia

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9

A cancer of the lymphatic system, which is part of the body's germ-fighting network. Symptoms include night sweats, unintentional weight loss + persistent itching all over the body

Lymphoma

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10

In the absence of genes like p16 and 14, this process is impaired and increases cancer risk

Apoptosis

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11

Errors in this can lead to polyploid cells which is an indicator for cancer. Acquired p53 gene mutation is most commonly linked to cancer and is located on the short arm of 17 of this structure.

Chromosome segregation

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12

A complex initiation from the body which is specific in response to infection, injury and tissue damage. The purpose of this is to eliminate the cause of this infection, injury or tissue damage

Inflammatory response

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13

What term refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites in the body, leading to the formation of secondary tumors?

Metastasis

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14

The orchestrated collapse of a cell characterised by cell shrinkage, condensation of chromatin, and fragmentation of DNA followed by rapid engulfment of the corpse of neighbouring cells

Apoptosis

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15

A type of white blood cell made within the thymus that are avaliable in low numbers when a patient if infected with HIV. The normal count of these cells range from 500-1200 cells/mm cubed.

CD4+

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16

Name the immune cells responsible for releasing perforin in the immune response. These cells are responsible for directly killing cancer cells.

CD8+

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17

These molecules allow cytotoxic T cells to identify pathology such as cancers expressing mutated proteins

MHC

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18

Name the protein complex found on surfaces of T lymphocytes. It is responsible for recognising fragments of antigen as peptides bound to major histocompatolbility complex molecules.

TCR

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19

These cells assist CD8+ cells in recognizing and destroying cancer cells, but more commonly in the immune system they recruit and provide help to multiple immune cells specifically activating B lymphocytes.

CD4+

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20

This is the percentage effectiveness of having 2 doses of the Pfizer COVID-19 vaccination after a time period of 6 months

50

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21

This is the percenatge of the UK population aged 12 and over that have received the COVID-19 booster or the third dose.

70

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22

Due to a now discredited article (1998) linking the MMR vaccine to autism, the uptake of the vaccine decreased. MMR vaccine coverage in children decreased from around 91% in 1997 to ___% in 2003/4?

80

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23

What percentage of the population needs to be vaccinated against measles to achieve herd immunity

99

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24

In 2020, what percentage of adolescents aged 13-15 years old had recieved 2 or 3 doses of human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine as recommended?

50

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25

These values can be used in a simple outlier detection technique. Observations lying outside of these "fences" can be considered outliers.

Q3 + 1.5 IQR

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26

What is the value that separates the highest 1/4 of the data from the rest?

Q3

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27

This set of data is calculated through working out the difference between the 75th & 25th percentiles of data

IQR

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28

Also known as the median of the data set, if this value is far away from the upper end of the box, it means the data points above this value are scattered and the data points below are clustered.

Q2

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29

Refers to the point on a violin plot where the data has the highest density, often corresponding to its widest part.

Mode

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30

Used to measure the preschool social development of a child aged 3-6 months. Useful for identifying a child's social skills and whether their social competence is separate to any social pathology.

Adaptive Social Behaviour Inventory

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31

A questionnaire completed by a child's parent/ carer that rates observed behaviours of the child. An example of a behaviour is repetitive behaviours. Can be used as a tool to diagnose this disorder

Autism Behaviour Inventory

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32

A parent rating scale used as a screening and outcome measure of disruptive behaviours in children and adolescents between 2 and 16 years old

Eyberg Child Behaviour

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33

A 150-item self-report measure in a true-false format, designed to examine coping styles and personality features among people with physical illnesses.

Millon Behavioural Health Inventory

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34

This test, developed in the 1970s, is used to evaluate the severity and frequency of problematic behaviours in children aged 2 to 16 years old. It is one of the most widely used and well-researched assessment tools for evaluating child behaviour problems and has been adapted for use with a variety of populations, including children with developmental disabilities, children in foster care, and children from culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds.

Eyberg Child Behaviour Inventory

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35

The long-term effects of this risk factor has led to the development of government policies on its restrictions and, in some communities, a ban on this. It accounts for about 3 million deaths every year from the harmful use of it (WHO, 2022), and it can have a detrimental effect on executing tasks.

Alcohol

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36

This can lead to a rare cancer that usually starts in the pleura of the lungs, and more rarely starts in the peritoneum.

Asbestos exposure

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37

Members of the population who live in Cornwall will generally have a higher exposure to this risk factor than someone who lives in Liverpool

Radiation exposure

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38

An example of such infection could potentially lead to HPV positive head and neck squamous cell carcinoma in unvaccinated individuals.

Viral infection

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