(ISC)2 Practice Exam 1

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100 Terms

1
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The process of verifying or proving the user's identification is known as:

Authentication

2
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Which of the following properties is NOT guaranteed by Digital Signatures?

Confidentiality

3
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Which of the following Cybersecurity concepts guarantees that information is accessible only to those authorized to access it?

Confidentiality

4
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Sensitivity is a measure of the ...:

... importance assigned to information by its owner, or the purpose of representing its need for protection.

5
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Which of the following areas is the most distinctive property of PHI?

Confidentiality

6
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Which of the following areas is connected to PII?

Confidentiality

7
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An exploitable weakness or flaw in a system or component is a:

Vulnerability

8
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The magnitude of the harm expected as a result of the consequences of an unauthorized disclosure, modification, destruction, or loss of information, is known as the:

Impact

9
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Risk Management is:

The identification, evaluation and prioritization of risk

10
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In risk management, the highest priority is given to a risk where:

The frequency of occurrence is low, and the expected impact value is high

11
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An entity that acts to exploit a target organization's system vulnerabilities is a:

Threat Actor

12
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Which of the following is an example of a technical security control?

Access Control Lists

13
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When a company hires an insurance company to mitigate risk, which risk management technique is being applied?

Risk Transfer

14
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical security control?

Firewalls

15
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Which of the following is an example of an administrative security control?

Acceptable Use Policies

16
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A Security safeguard is the same as a:

Security control

17
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Which of the following are NOT types of security controls?

Storage Controls

18
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A biometric reader that grants access to a computer system in a data center is a:

Technical Control

19
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The implementation of Security Controls is a form of:

Risk reduction

20
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According to the canon "Provide diligent and competent service to principals", ISC2 professionals are to:

Avoid apparent or actual conflicts of interest.

21
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Which of the following canons is found in the ISC2 code of ethics?

Provide diligent and competent service to principals

22
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Which of the following is NOT an ethical canon of the ISC2?

Provide active and qualified service to principal

23
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The detailed steps to complete tasks supporting departmental or organizational policies are typically documented in:

Procedures

24
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Governments can impose financial penalties as a consequence of breaking a:

Regulation

25
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Which of the following documents contains elements that are NOT mandatory?

Guidelines

26
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Which of these has the PRIMARY objective of identifying and prioritizing critical business processes?

Business Impact Analysis

27
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The predetermined set of instructions or procedures to sustain business operations after a disaster is commonly known as:

Business Continuity Plan

28
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Which of these is the most efficient and effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Simulations

29
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After an earthquake disrupting business operations, which document contains the procedures required to return business to normal operation?

The Disaster Recovery Plan

30
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Which of these is the PRIMARY objective of a Disaster Recovery Plan?

Restore company operation to the last-known reliable operation state

31
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In the event of a disaster, which of these should be the PRIMARY objective? (★)

Guarantee the safety of people

32
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Which of the following is less likely to be part of an incident response team?

Human Resources

33
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Which are the components of an incident response plan?

Preparation -> Detection and Analysis -> Containment, Eradication and Recovery -> Post-Incident Activity

34
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In incident terminology, the meaning of Zero Day is:

A previously unknown system vulnerability

35
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In which of the following phases of an Incident Recovery Plan are incident responses prioritized?

Detection and Analysis

36
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Which of the following is NOT a possible model for an Incident Response Team (IRT)?

Pre-existing

37
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Which security principle states that a user should only have the necessary permission to execute a task?

Least Privilege

38
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Which concept describes an information security strategy that integrates people, technology and operations in order to establish security controls across multiple layers of the organization?

Defense in Depth

39
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Which of these types of user is LESS likely to have a privileged account?

External Worker

40
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Which of the following principles aims primarily at fraud detection?

Separation of Duties

41
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Which of the following is a detection control?

Smoke sensors

42
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Which of the following is an example of 2FA?

One-Time Passwords (OTA)

43
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If an organization wants to protect itself against tailgating, which of the following types of access control would be most effective?

Turnstiles

44
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Which access control is more effective at protecting a door against unauthorized access?

Locks

45
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Which access control model can grant access to a given object based on complex rules?

ABAC

46
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Which access control model specifies access to an object based on the subject's role in the organization?

RBAC

47
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The Bell and LaPadula access control model is a form of: (★)

MAC

48
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In which of the following access control models can the creator of an object delegate permission?

DAC

49
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Which protocol uses a three-way handshake to establish a reliable connection?

TCP

50
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Which of the following is a public IP?

13.16.123.1

51
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How many layers does the OSI model have?

7

52
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The address 8be2:4382:8d84:7ce2:ec0f:3908:d29a:903a is an:

IPv6 address

53
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Which are the three packets used on the TCP connection handshake? (★)

SYN → SYN/ACK → ACK

54
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Which port is used to secure communication over the web (HTTPS)?

443

55
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If there is no time constraint, which protocol should be employed to establish a reliable connection between two devices?

TCP

56
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Which devices would be more effective in detecting an intrusion into a network?

NIDS

57
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Which type of attack will most effectively maintain remote access and control over the victim's computer?

Rootkits

58
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Which type of attack has the PRIMARY objective of encrypting devices and their data, and then demanding a ransom payment for the decryption key?

Ransomware

59
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Malicious emails that aim to attack company executives are an example of:

Whaling

60
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Which type of attack has the PRIMARY objective controlling the system from outside?

Backdoors

61
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What does SIEM mean?

Security Information and Event Manager

62
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Which of these is not an attack against an IP network?

Side-Channel Attack

63
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Which devices have the PRIMARY objective of collecting and analyzing security events?

SIEM

64
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Which type of attack attempts to trick the user into revealing personal information by sending a fraudulent message?

Phishing

65
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Which type of attack attempts to gain information by observing the device's power consumption? (★)

Side channels

66
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Which type of attack PRIMARILY aims to make a resource inaccessible to its intended users?

Denials of Service

67
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What is the consequence of a Denial Of Service attack?

Exhaustion of device resources

68
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Which type of attack embeds malicious payload inside a reputable or trusted software?

Trojans

69
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Which of the following attacks take advantage of poor input validation in websites?

Cross-Site Scripting

70
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In which cloud model does the cloud customer have LESS responsibility over the infrastructure?

SaaS

71
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The cloud deployment model where a company has resources on-premise and in the cloud is known as:

Hybrid cloud

72
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The SMTP protocol operates at OSI Level:

7

73
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A web server that accepts requests from external clients should be placed in which network?

DMZ

74
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Which of these would be the best option if a network administrator needs to control access to a network?

NAC

75
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Which of these tools is commonly used to crack passwords? (★)

John the Ripper

76
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Which tool is commonly used to sniff network traffic? (★)

Wireshark

77
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In order to find out whether personal tablet devices are allowed in the office, which of the following policies would be helpful to read?

BYOD

78
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Which device is used to connect a LAN to the Internet?

Router

79
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Which of the following types of devices inspect packet header information to either allow or deny network traffic?

Firewalls

80
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Which of the following cloud models allows access to fundamental computer resources? (★)

IaaS

81
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Which of the following is not a protocol of the OSI Level 3?

SNMP

82
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In which cloud deployment model do companies share resources and infrastructure on the cloud?

Community cloud

83
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Which type of key can be used to both encrypt and decrypt the same message?

A symmetric key

84
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Logging and monitoring systems are essential to:

Identifying inefficient performing systems, detecting compromises, and providing a record of how systems are used

85
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Which of the following is NOT a feature of a cryptographic hash function?

Reversible

86
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The last phase in the data security cycle is:

Destruction

87
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According to ISC2, which are the six phases of data handling?

Create -> Store -> Use -> Share -> Archive -> Destroy

88
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How many data labels are considered good practice?

2-3

89
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A best practice of patch management is to:

Test patches before applying them

90
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What is an effective way of hardening a system?

Patch the system

91
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A device found not to comply with the security baseline should be:

Disabled or isolated into a quarantine area until it can be checked and updated.

92
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Which of the following is a data handling policy procedure?

Destroy

93
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Which of these is NOT a change management component?

Governance

94
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The process that ensures that system changes do not adversely impact business operations is known as:

Change Management

95
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In Change Management, which component addresses the procedures needed to undo changes?

Rollback

96
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Which regulations address data protection and privacy in Europe?

GDPR

97
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Which of the following is NOT a type of learning activity used in Security Awareness?

Tutorial

98
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Security posters are an element PRIMARILY employed in: (★)

Security Awareness

99
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Which of the following is NOT a social engineering technique?

Double-dealing

100
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Which of the following is NOT an element of System Security Configuration Management?

Audit logs