SAD Exam 3 VTNE Q&A's

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64 Terms

1
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The normal temperature for a canine patient ranges from:

a. 99 F - 101.5 F

b. 96.8 F - 99 F

c. 100.0 F - 102.2 F

d. 96.8 F - 102.5 F

c. 100.0 F - 102.2 F

2
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The normal temperature for a feline patient ranges from:

a. 99 F - 101.5 F

b. 96.8 F - 99 F

c. 100 F - 102.2 F

d. 96.8 F - 102.5 F

c. 100 F - 102.2 F

3
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The normal heart rate for a feline patient ranges from:

a. 16-32 bpm

b. 20-42 bpm

c. 60-160 bpm

d. 140-220 bpm

d. 140-220 bpm

4
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During the first few days of life, the normal body temperature of a newborn puppy is:

a. 94.5 F - 97.3 F

b. 94.7 F - 100.1 F

c. 97.0 F - 99.0 F

d. 99.0 F - 101.5 F

a.

5
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The normal heart rate for a canine patient ranges from:

a. 16-32 bpm

b. 20-42 bpm

c. 60-160 bpm

d. 140-220 bpm

c.

6
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When a female dog is bred, the amount of food (calories) she is fed should be increased:

a. Immediately after breeding

b. 1 week after breeding

c. 2 or 3 weeks after breeding

d. 5 or 6 weeks after breeding

d. 5 or 6 weeks after breeding

7
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The gastrointestinal tracts of newborn puppies and kittens are uniquely suited to digest and absorb the milk produced by their mothers. The primary sources of energy in the milk is:

a. Fat and lactose

b. Fat and protein

c. Lactose and protein

d. Protein and starch

a. Fat and lactose

8
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The normal respiratory rate for a feline patient ranges from:

a. 6-16 bpm

b. 16-32 bpm

c. 20-42 bpm

d. 42-55 bpm

c. 20-42 bpm

9
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The normal respiratory rate for a canine patient ranges from:

a. 6-16 bpm

b. 16-32 bpm

c. 20-42 bpm

d. 42-55 bpm

b. 16-32 bpm

10
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Which of the following statements is true of urinary catheterization?

a. Disinfecting of the prepuce is not required

b. The catheter must be disinfected periodically

c. After the catheter is properly placed, there is no concern for dislodgment

d. Aseptic technique is not required when handling the collection bag

b. The catheter must be disinfected periodically

11
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At what age do the permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt?

a. 3-5 months

b. 4-6 months

c. 5-7 months

d. 6-8 months

b. 4-6 months

12
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Which of the following is defined as an increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen level?

a. Anemia

b. Azotemia

c. Hypoproteinemia

d. Isosthenuria

b. Azotemia

13
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Consumption of colostrum after being born is important to a neonate's health because:

a. The neonate immediately requires calories to start growing

b. Colostrum strengthens the bond between mother and neonate

c. Passive acquirement of immunoglobulins strengthens the immune system

d. Colostrum has a palatable taste that encourages neonates to continue suckling

c. Passive acquirement of immunoglobulins strengthens the immune system

14
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How soon should a kitten receive colostrum to obtain passive immunity?

a. 8 hours

b. 16 hours

c. 24 hours

d. 48 hours

b. 16 hours

15
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Which of the following are reasons for cautious drug dosing in neonates?

a. Neonates have reduced liver function

b. The left and right ventricles are of approximately equal size

c. Appropriate immunoglobulin production is lacking

d. Neonates are susceptible to hypothermia

a. Neonates have reduced liver function

16
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When monitoring patients on fluids and/or patients that undergo diuresis, urine output is an important consideration. The normal urine production for a healthy dog or cat is approximately:

a. 0-1 mL/kg/hr

b. 1-2 mL/kg/hr

c. 2-3 mL/kg/hr

d. 3-4 mL/kg/hr

b. 1-2 mL/kg/hr

17
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With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient, which of the following would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC?

a. Increased urine UG and increased PCV

b. Increased urine SG and decreased PCV

c. Decreased urine SG and decreased PCV

d. Decreased urine SG and increased PCV

a. Increased urine UG and increased PCV

18
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Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition?

a. Liver disease

b. Urinary tract infection

c. Renal failure

d. Diabetes mellitus

d. Diabetes mellitus

19
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The presence of protein in the urine may indicate:

a. Acid-base imbalance

b. Hemolytic anemia

c. Kidney disease

d. Diabetes mellitus

c. Kidney disease

20
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Which of the following describes a patient suffering from dystocia?

a. Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis

b. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures

c. In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced

d. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, and polydipsia

c. In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced

21
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Goals for the medical management of chronic kidney disease include all of the following except:

a. Slowing progression of the disease

b. Treating concurrent disease

c. Correcting electrolyte imbalances

d. Restoring loss of kidney function

d. Restoring loss of kidney function

22
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Which of the following is a postpartum complication caused by hypocalcemia?

a. Eclampsia

b. Galactostasis

c. Mastitis

d. Metritis

a. Eclampsia

23
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Cats exposed to feline leukemia virus typically respond in any of the following ways, except:

a. Not becoming infected at all

b. Becoming temporarily infected, developing immunity and overcoming the infection

c. Becoming infected and continuing to shed the virus indefinitely without becoming ill

d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

d. Becoming infected, becoming ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

24
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What is the predominant method for transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats?

a. Grooming

b. Bite wounds

c. Urine

d. Feces

b. Bite wounds

25
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Polyuria is:

a. A lack of urine production

b. The production of excessive amounts of urine

c. A lack of water intake

d. Excessive protein in the urine

b. The production of excessive amounts of urine

26
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A urolith is a pathogenic stone formed from mineral salts found in the urinary tract. Which of the following is not a factor in the formation of uroliths?

a. Urine pH

b. Urine concentration

c. Urine saturation

d. Urine protein

d. Urine protein

27
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Lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and are rare in the healthy cat

b. Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the cat and are rare in the healthy dog

c. Male dogs are more prone to infection that female dogs

d. Treatment for bacterial infections consists of appropriate antimicrobial therapy for 2 to 4 days

a. Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and are rare in the healthy cat

28
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Oliguria is:

a. Excessive eating

b. Green urine

c. Excessive bilirubin in the urine

d. Decreased urine output

d. Decreased urine output

29
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Urinary tract infection is a common secondary complication in cats and dogs with:

a. Congestive heart failure

b. Diabetes mellitus

c. Hepatic lipidosis

d. Hyperthyroidism

b. Diabetes mellitus

30
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Common signs of bacterial infections of the urinary tract include hematuria, pollakiuria, urinating in inappropriate places, and which of the following?

a. Azotemia

b. Dehydration

c. Dysuria

d. Elevated BUN

c. Dysuria

31
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Anuria is:

a. Decreased urine output

b. Decreased drinking

c. Complete lack of urine production

d. Excessive drinking

c. Complete lack of urine production

32
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Painful urination is recorded as:

a. Dysuria

b. Hematuria

c. Pyuria

d. Proteinuria

a. Dysuria

33
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Which of the following describes a patient suffering from pyometra?

a. Hard, painful nipple and galactostasis

b. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures

c. In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced

d. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria and polydipsia

d. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria and polydipsia

34
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A blood sampling from neonatal puppies and kittens is generally most easily obtained using the:

a. Cephalic vein

b. Jugular vein

c. Lateral saphenous vein

d. Medial saphenous vein

b. Jugular vein

35
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Which of the following describes a patient suffering from eclampsia?

a. Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis

b. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures

c. In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced

d. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, and polydipsia

b. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures

36
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Which of the following is defined as an irreversible, progressive loss of functioning renal tissue?

a. Acute kidney injury

b. Chronic kidney disease

c. Acute liver failure

d. Chronic liver disease

b. Chronic kidney disease

37
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The highly convoluted _____________ extends from the glomerular capsule to the connection with the collecting duct.

a. Nephron

b. Renal tubule

c. Ureter

d. Urethra

b. Renal tubule

38
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When passing urine is painful and uncomfortable, it is known as which of the following?

a. Dysuria

b. Poikuria

c. Polyuria

d. Stranguria

a. Dysuria

39
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Which of the following describes a patient suffering from mastitis?

a. Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis

b. Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures

c. In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced

d. Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria and polydipsia

a. Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis

40
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Colostrum ingestion terminates ______ post birth.

a. 8 hours

b. 12 hours

c. 24 hours

d. 48 hours

c. 24 hours

41
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Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis are two causes of:

a. Cardiac disease

b. Hepatic disease

c. Renal disease

d. Thyroid disease

c. Renal disease

42
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Which of the following types of uroliths are found in alkaline urine?

a. Struvite uroliths

b. Ammonium urate uroliths

c. Calcium oxalate uroliths

d. Cystine uroliths

a. Struvite uroliths

43
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Which of the following terms is used to describe passing larger volumes of urine than normal?

a. Fomite

b. Poikuria

c. Polyuria

d. Vector

c. Polyuria

44
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Chronic renal disease is one of the diseases seen most commonly in geriatric patients, especially cats. In addition to causing increased polyuria and polydipsia, renal disease may also cause:

a. Anemia

b. Anorexia

c. Gastric upset

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

45
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Postpartum uterine infections are known as:

a. Fetal membranes

b. Metritis

c. Pseudopregnancy

d. Milk fever

b. Metritis

46
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A condition that is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the uterus and one or more corpus lute in the ovaries is known as:

a. Fetal membranes

b. Metritis

c. Pseudopregnancy

d. Milk fever

c. Pseudopregnancy

47
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As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for the:

a. Increase in calories

b. Decrease in fat and increase in fiber

c. Addition of table scraps

d. Decrease in fiber

b. Decrease in fat and increase in fiber

48
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Puppies, kittens, and nursing mothers require:

a. Higher levels of protein in their diet than adult maintenance requirements

b. Vitamin supplements

c. Higher levels of fiber than are required in adult maintenance diets

d. Fewer calories than adult maintenance requirements

a. Higher levels of protein in their diet than adult maintenance requirements

49
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The typical gestation period for dogs is:

a. 42 days

b. 63 days

c. 114 days

d. 147 days

b. 63 days

50
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Kittens are generally fed a growth formula food until they are approximately how old?

a. 10-12 months

b. 18 months

c. 2 years

d. 6 months

a. 10-12 months

51
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A bitch's food caloric needs are highest:

a. During the first trimester

b. During the fourth week of lactation

c. During the third trimester

d. Just before weaning

b. During the fourth week of lactation

52
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The most common error in feeding growing puppies is providing:

a. Too much food

b. Too little food

c. The right amount of food

d. Too much milk

a. Too much food

53
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The most common cause of FLUTD in cats less than 10 years of age is:

a. Struvite uroliths

b. Feline idiopathic cystitis (FIC)

c. Calcium oxalate crystals

d. Urethral plugs

b. Feline idiopathic cystitis (FIC)

54
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Litter box management for cats with FLUTD includes:

a. Using only covered litter boxes

b. Using highly-scented litter so the unappealing urine odor is masked

c. Having one litter box per cat -- plus one additional

d. Always using scoopable litter

c. Having one litter box per cat -- plus one additional

55
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Diagnostic evaluation of felines with recurrent or persistent lower urinary tract signs should include:

a. Urinalysis

b. Diagnostic imaging

c. Thyroid testing

d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

56
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To evaluate urine for crystalluria:

a. Urinalysis should be performed within 30 minutes of sample collection

b. Evaluation is best performed after urine has been refrigerated for 12 hours

c. Sample should always be sent out for evaluation

d. Ultrasound is the most reliable means of evaluation

a. Urinalysis should be performed within 30 minutes of sample collection

57
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Hematuria can be determined to exist:

a. When there is any positive reading for blood on the dipstick

b. If intact erythrocytes are present in the microscopic examination of the urine sediment

c. Only if there is a red tint to the urine sample

d. Whenever there is a case of feline idiopathic cystitis

b. If intact erythrocytes are present in the microscopic examination of the urine sediment

58
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Methods for increasing water intake in cats include:

a. Placing ice cubes in water

b. Adding broth to foods

c. Providing water fountains

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

59
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A key nutritional component to managing the inflammation seen in FIC is:

a. Adding salt to the cat's food

b. Adding omega-3 fatty acids to the diet

c. Feeding only once daily

d. Feeding various types of food

b. Adding omega-3 fatty acids to the diet

60
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Currently the recommended treatment(s) for cats with FIC include:

a. Nutritional management

b. Environmental enrichment

c. Stress reduction

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

61
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Which of the following diseases exhibit coughing, fever, and mucopurulent discharge?

a. Kennel cough

b. Canine parvovirus

c. Canine distemper

d. Infectious canine tracheobronchitis

c. Canine distemper

62
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All of the following would be considered a core vaccine, except:

a. Distemper

b. Rabies

c. Canine adenovirus

d. Leptospira

d. Leptospira

63
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All of the following would be considered a core vaccine, except:

a. Modified live panleukopenia

b. Herpes-calicivirus

c. Leukemia

d. Rabies

c. Leukemia

64
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What is the known duration of immunity for Bordetella bronchiseptica?

a. 6 months

b. 1 year

c. 3 years

d. 5 years

b. 1 year