Biochem Practicals

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Biochemistry

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1
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How do some bacteria manage not to digest their own DNA but still digest transformed DNA

  • Modify by methylation of A and/or C

  • One strand is immediately methylated after replication so it can be protected whilst other strand is methylated

2
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Why use two different restriction enzymes when cloning into a DNA fragment into a plasmid

  • Directional

3
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Why do we want directional cloning?

  • Expression of correct protein

  • Ensure the correct strand is transcribed in in vitro transcription

4
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How to check that cloning has been directional without sequencing the clones?

  • Use restriction enzymes that cut asymmetrically within the plasmid

  • Know exactly where they cut in the insert and in the plasmid

  • Draw a map

  • Separate fragments on agarose

  • Compare the expected size of fragments for each map to the size of fragments displayed on the agarose

5
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Reasons why PCR has failed, besides just forgetting to add any components

  • DNA template degraded / contaminated / too little

  • Primers form secondary structures or dimers

  • Elongation cycling time is too short

    • To little Mg2+ so too much repulsion

6
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Why might you obtain a series of PCR products when only one is expected? How is this avoided?

  • Non-specific priming

  • Increase annealing temperature

  • Decrease Mg2+ concentration to increase repulsion

    • Change primer

7
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Why is RT often used before qPCR

  • Forms cDNA so that it can be amplified by PCR

  • Amount of DNA produced after a set number of cycles shows how much DNA was started with

8
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What are two common methods for detection of products in qPCR

  • Fluorescent dye that non specifically intercalates into dsDNA (SYBR green)

  • Sequence specific DNA probes with a 5’ fluorophore and 3’ quencher (fluorophore removed by 5’ → 3’ exonuclease activity of DNA pol)

9
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What control is required for SYBR green?

  • Binds to any dsDNA in the sample

    • Verify that only the product of interest is amplified

10
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Where is RT derived from?

  • AMV

    • MMLV

11
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How to use RT to form DNA from RNA

  • Anneal with oligo(dT) primer to bind to the poly(A) tail

  • Reverse transcriptase will continue

12
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ignore

  • okayyay

13
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What is a housekeeping gene used for in qPCR

  • Determined as a gene that does not change expression levels when given the same treatment that is altering the expression of the protein in question

  • Reports the relative amount of starting cDNA for that sample

  • Allows comparison in change of expression levels as change in fluorescence could just be different amounts of template started with

14
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Rationalise the effects of NaCl and MgCl2 on the stability of dsDNA

  • Reduce repulsion between phosphates in the backbone

  • Mg2+ more effective as higher charge density

15
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Rationalise the effects of urea on the stability of dsDNA

  • Urea competes for the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs

    • Reduces attraction between bases

16
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How does separation achieved by gel electrophoresis differ from gel filtration

  • Gel filtration: larger molecules move faster as they pass rapidly around matrix beads and do not have to squeeze through them

    • Gel filtration: smaller molecules move slower as they are able to move space both within and outside the porous matrix

17
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Purpose of a sodium phosphate wash buffer in gel filtration

  • Removes unbound proteins

18
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Purpose of a sodium phosphate + imidazole wash in gel filtration

  • Competes for Ni2+ sites, knocking off any contaminating proteins that have unpaired electrons used in nickel binding or external his residues

19
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Techniques for measuring specific interactions between DNA and DNA-binding proteins

  • DNA footprintng

  • Modification interference e.g. methylation protection

  • ChIP

  • UV-crosslinking

20
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Explain blue-white selection

  • Beta-galactosidase breaks down X-gal into a blue substrate

  • MCS of pBluescript is inside LacZ’ gene

  • Inserting gene into LacZ’ inactivates gene: no functional beta-galactosidase

  • Add IPTG and X-gal

  • Plasmids with insert will be white, without insert will be blue

21
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Explain how Bradford assays work

  • Coomassie dye has a red and a blue form

  • Dye binds to proteins, which stabilizes the blue form

  • Amount of complex present in the solution can be estimated using absorbance reading at 595nm

  • Amount of complex also proportional to amount of protein present in sample

  • Make a standard curve using known amount of BSA

  • Intraplate absorbance reading of sample on standard curve

22
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What is a cDNA library?

  • cDNA prepared using RT on mRNA

  • Collection of cloned cDNA fragments inserted into E.coli host cells

  • Can screen library for clone of interest by plating onto agar plates and then transferring colonies that grow onto a membrane probed with specific radiolabeled DNA probes to the sequence of interest

  • Where radioactivity is can be extrapolated back to the colony position on the original agar plate

23
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Simply, what is ChIP used for?

  • Determine whether specific proteins are associated with specific genomic regions

    • E.g. transcription factors associated on promoters or other DNA binding sites

24
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Describe the prosses of NChIP (native chip)

  • Chromatin in the nucleus under native conditions

  • Formaldehyde cross linking reversibly cross-links protein to chromatin in the cells

  • DNA sheared by micrococcal nuclease digestion into fragments 300bp, still associated to protein

  • Antibodies to protein of interest coupled to protein A beads immunoprecipitated the protein of interest, which is still cross-linked to the DNA fragment

  • Cross-links are reversed

    • DNA purified and analyzed with PCR and direct high-throughput sequencing

25
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Simply, what does DNA footprinting do?

  • Determines where protein binding protects DNA from attack by nucleases or chemical probes

  • Determines precise binding site of a protein on a fragment of DNA

26
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Describe how DNA footprinting is carried out

  • DNA is one end-labelled using 32P

  • Protein incubated with dsDNA

  • Mildly digested with DNAase, each DNA molecule is cut once

  • Separate on agarose

  • Visualise radioactivity

  • DNA without protein will have a continuous fragment ladder (cuts at a random points on every strand)

    • DNA and protein will have a gap (footprint) where DNA has been protected and remains associated with protein

27
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What does FISH stand for?

  • Fluorescence in situ hybridization

28
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What does FISH do?

  • Detect and localise presence of specific DNA sequences on chromosomes

    • Detect and localise specific RNA targets inside cells

  • Gives the cool different coloured fluorescence diagrams

29
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Describe how FISH is carried out

  • Cells are fixed and permeabilized

  • Oligonucleotides complementary to sequence of interest are fluorescently labelled

  • Incubated

  • Probes bind to mRNA

  • Fluorescent microscopy visualizes where labels are in cells

    • Can use different probes with different fluorescent labels to create a colourful diagram

30
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How is FISH used clinically?

  • Detect genetic conditions by testing if the gene sequence is present in chromosome

  • Evaluate progression or remission of a disease e.g. cancer

31
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What is the basis of gel filtration of a protein mixture?

  • Small molecules can penetrate the pore system of beads in the matrix, causing retention that slows their path

    • Large proteins can’t penetrate pore system so only enter interbead space and elute first

32
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Agarose gels

  • Separate mixed masses of DNA or RNA

  • Small molecules move fastest

  • Can then be transferred to a suitable membrane for southern/northern blots

33
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Formaldehyde agarose

  • Denaturing agent in RNA separation gels

34
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SDS-PAGE gels

  • Separate proteins according to size

    • Denaturing

35
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Native PAGE

  • Separation of proteins by size and shape as non-denaturing

  • Used in EMSAs to analyze nucleic acid: protein complexes

36
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8M urea gels

  • Separate DNA or RNA by molecular weight with higher resolution

37
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What does iCLIP stand for?

Individual-nucleotide resolution cross linking immunoprecipitation

38
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Simply, what does iCLIP do?

  • Identify protein-RNA interactions

39
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Describe the process of iCLIP

  • UV light covalently cross-links RNA with any of its interacting protein molecules

  • Cell is lysed

  • Immunoprecipitate protein-RNA interactions (antibody to protein with protein A beads)

  • RNAs labelled using 32P

  • SDS-PAGE

  • Transferred to nitrocellulose membrane for Western blotting

  • Radioactivity detected

  • Radiolabelled complexes removed from membrane, treated with protease to extract RNA

  • RT to get cDNA

  • High throughput sequencing to pinpoint crosslink sites

40
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What does RIP stand for?

  • RNA immunoprecipitation

41
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What does RIP do?

  • Antibody-based technique to map in-vivo RNA-protein interactions

  • Fix antibody against protein of interest against side of well

  • Mix protein with various RNA, add to well

  • Repeat washings so only protein of interest of left

  • RT to extract cDNA from RNA bound in protein

  • PCR or seq

42
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How does a pull down assay work?

  • Tag protein of interest with his tag or GST tag

  • Immobilize protein of interest on a column of nickel (for his tag) or glutathione sepharose (for GST tag)

  • Add protein mixture

  • Wash thoroughly

  • Only protein complex interacting with POI remains bound

  • Elute using imidazole or glutathionine

    • Analyse SDS-PAGE or mass spec

43
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Briefly, how does RNAi knockdown gene expression?

  • siRNA forms a complex with Ago2 RE that is inside RISC

  • Ago2 catalyzes endonucleolytic cleavage of target RNAs when siRNAs bind

44
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How would you downregulate expression of protein X using RNAi?

  • Make 21bp siRNA that is specific for mRNA of protein X introduced to cell as dsRNA (guide stand and passenger strand with 2bp overhangs)

  • Guide strand interacts with Ago2 within RISC

  • Guide strand binds specifically to protein X mRNA

  • Ago2 cleaves mRNA that is bound to the siRNA

    • Rest of the mRNA undergoes further decay using cellular pathways

45
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How would you check that you have knocked down a protein expression when you’ve used RNAi?

  • Western blot with radioactive probes for protein X

    • Use sample treated with specific siRNA and a control sample that has used a random siRNA

46
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Why is using RT-qPCR not very reliable as a method of measuring if RNAi has knocked down mRNA expression

  • Does not report on actual protein level

  • Depends on half life of RNA as well

47
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Briefly, how is Southern blotting carried out?

  • Separate DNA on agarose

  • Transfer to a membrane

  • DNA of interest is detected using hybridization of a specific detectable probe

  • Visualised using appropriate method

48
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Assumptions of the Michealis Menten equation?

  • SCANC: spontaneous, constant, allostery, negligible, cooperativity

  • No spontaneous creation of product

  • [substrate] »» [enzyme] so that substrate concentration can be assumed constant throughout the assay

  • Neither substrate nor product is allosteric modulator of the enzyme involved

  • [product] negligible so rate of reverse reaction is 0 when measuring

  • No co-operativity

49
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What makes fluorogenic compounds more sensitive than chromogenic ones?

  • Fluorescence is always a different wavelength to the absorbed wavelength

  • Allows detector to be set to a different wavelength to the illumination of the sample

  • Don’t have to remove background intensity

  • Less “noise”

50
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How to check for possible non-enzymatic hydrolysis of the substrate

  • Control with no enzyme

  • Measure background

51
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Convert from mg/mL to g/L

  • They are the same

52
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Convert from g/L to M

g/L / Mr

53
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State 1 mitochondria

  • Mitochondria alone

  • Slow as ETC inhibited by high pmf

54
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State 2 mitochondria

  • Substrate added

  • Slight increase in rate as ETC running

  • No ADP so ATPSase not running

  • Pmf not dissipated

55
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State 3 mitochondria

  • ADP added

  • Pmf can be dissipated via ATPSase

  • Inhibition released

56
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State 4 mitochondria

  • Ran out of ADP

  • Pmf accumulates again

  • Rate slows, roughly same rate as in state 1

57
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What is done experimentally after state 4 and why?

  • Add uncoupler e.g. FCCP

  • Rapidly dissiptates pmf: is a proton transporter along the electrochemical gradient

  • Rate increases rapidly

  • To reach zero oxygen on a graph being generated so that mmol o per square can be calculated

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How to calculate mmol O per square on the mitochondria graphs

  • Number of squares between start and when zero oxygen is reached after uncoupler is added is volume of electrode chamber x air saturated concentration x2 (O not O2)

59
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Inhibitors for each of the complexes, ATPSase and uncouplers

  • RACOF

  • I : rotanone

  • III: antimycin

  • IV: cyanide

  • ATPSase: oligomycin

  • Uncoupler: FFCP

60
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What are the substrates that feed electrons into complex I and II?

  • I: NADH (hard to use experimentally, malate/glutamate used instead)

  • II: Succinate

61
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Describe the movement of electrons through the etc

  • Substrate feeds into CI OR CII

  • Feeds into CIII

  • CIV forms water from oxygen

62
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How many protons do each of the complexes pump into the intermembrane space

  • I: 4

  • II: None

  • III: 4

  • IV: 2

63
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How to calculate experimental P:O

mol ADP consumed in state 3 / mol O consumed in state 3

64
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How to calculate theoretical P:O

H+:O/H+:P or 10 when using CI, 6 using C2, all over 8/3 + 1

65
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How to analyse P:O ratios

  • 2-3, doesn’t look like there’s anything wrong with the complex being used

66
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How to calculate RCR, and what is it used for?

  • rate of state 3 / rate of state 4

  • To see if membrane is damaged (S4 would run too fast as damaged membranes are already partially uncoupled, so RCR would be too low)

67
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Range for RCR analysis

4-8 Good, membranes coupled

<4 bad, damaged membranes

68
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Why use malate / glutamate instead of NADH to feed into complex I?

  • NADH hard to use experimentally, not very stable

  • Easier to buy, more stable

69
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Why are mt rested and fasted before experiments?

  • Deplete electrons

  • Whatever is added experimentally is the only source of electrons

70
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Analysis if experimental P:O > theoretical

  • Air bubble in chamber

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Analysis if experimental P:O < theoretical by about 10-15%

  • Experimental error (pipetting)

72
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Analysis if experimental P:O < theoretical by more than 15%

  • Damaged complex or mutation

73
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Lineweaver-Burk equation

1/V = (Km/Vmax) * (1/[S]) + (1/Vmax)

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What should be on the axes in Lineweaver-Burk plots?

  • x: 1/[S]

  • y: 1/V

75
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Define Vmax

  • Maximum ROR when enzyme is fully saturated with substrate

76
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Define Km

  • Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half of Vmax

77
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Define Kcat

  • Number oof substrate molecules converted to product by single enzyme molecule per unit time when enzyme is in fully saturated conditions

78
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Equation for kcat

Kcat = Vmax / total enzyme concentration

79
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Draw a diagram of where the forward and reverse primers bind

80
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Start codon (DNA)

  • ATG

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Stop codons (DNA)

  • TGA, TAA, TAG

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Reccomended G/C content of a primer

  • 40-60%