Pharmacology Exam 1

Pharmacology is the study of how medications act in the body. When we apply pharmacology to specific treatments, this is called what?

clinical pharmacology

What are the four “rules” of pharmacology?

1. All drugs are poisons

2. No drug is a silver bullet

3. All doses are guesses

4. Complacency kills

____ - these drugs are safe and effective for use and have been labeled with directions for the layman

Over the Counter (OTC)

Who determines the market status of drugs?

FDA

____ - these drugs contain ingredients requiring greater control of dispensing because of toxic effects, potential to be abused or diverted, and potential to do harm to the patient or the person handling the drug.

Veterinary Prescription Drugs (aka- Legend Drugs)

____ - when we use a drug in an animal in a manner that is not in accordance with the approved labeling.

Extralabel Drugs

____ drugs cannot be dispensed to a client or animal owner without a valid prescription written for an animal.

Veterinary Prescription Drugs (legend drugs)

In order to dispense prescription drugs, what must be established first?

a veterinarian-client-patieent-relationship

T or F: It is within the veterinarian’s rights to prescribe medication for a patient he or she has not seen.

False

Will you find an Rx Only label on veterinary medicine?

No, only found on human-approved prescription products

____ - this act gave statutory recognition to the veterinary prescription legend: “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”

Generic Animal Drug and Patent Restoration Act of 1988

Must a veterinarian choose a veterinary-approved product over a human-approved product when prescribing for non-food animal?

No

Must a veterinarian choose a veterinary-approved product over a human-approved product when prescribing for a food animal?

Yes

T or F: If the intended use is in a non-food animal, an approved human drug can be used even if an approved animal drug is available.

True

What does AMDUCA stand for?

Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994

____ products - these are products that are only sold through licensed veterinarians. However, they have an OTC status and no legal basis.

Ethical products

____ products are known as veterinary “cosmetics” and includes shampoos, cream rinses, skin conditioners, etc.

Grooming aids

_____ - not classified as a drug, not regulated by the FDA, and cannot make therapeutic claims. (ex: Denosyl SD4)

nutraceuticals

Are veterinary biologics (vaccines) regulated by the United States Department of Agriculture or the FDA?

United States Department of Agriculture

Pesticides are regulated by whom?

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Who is responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act?

DEA

What schedule of drugs has the most potential for abuse and dependence?

Schedule I

What schedule of drugs has a high potential for abuse and dependence?

Schedule II

What schedule of drugs has a moderate potential for abuse and dependence?

Schedule III

What schedule of drugs has a low potential for abuse and dependence?

Schedule IV

What schedule of drugs has the lowest potential for abuse and dependence?

Schedule V

T or F: In order to purchase a controlled substance veterinarians must be licensed in the states where they practice but do not need a valid DEA registration.

False

Schedule II drugs must be ordered with which form?

Form DEA-222

Schedule III - V drugs have a sale limit of ___%

5%

All records of CS purchased, used, distributed, dispensed, and disposed of must be maintained for at least ___ years and made available for inspection by DEA.

2 years

What form must the veterinarian fill out if they need to dispose of a CS?

DEA form-41

____ - meeting individual patient needs within the context of a valid veterinarian-client-patient-relationship that cannot be met through approved products in their commerically available form.

Compounding

T or F: Compounding medicine is available for resale.

False

Who can legally compound for veterinary patients?

• veterinarians

• pharmacists

What is the abbreviation for “refill as needed”

prn

T or F: Schedule II drugs can be refilled?

False

How many times can Schedule III - IV drugs be refilled, and how long are those refills valid for?

Can be refilled a maximum of five times and are valid for six months

What are the components of a prescription?

• prescriber information (name, address, phone # of clinic)

• identification of animal

• date issued

• name of drug and strength

• adequate instructions for administration

• withdrawal information if food animal

• expiration date

____ - any effect of the drug other than the intended effect

side effect

____ - describes a milk adverse reaction that usually does not require much medical intervention

precaution

____ - describes more serious or frequent side effects that could do significant harm to the patient

warnings

____ - strongest warning FDA can require, means adverse effects have a significant risk for severe of life-threatening effects

black box warning

____ - circumstances or conditions when the drug shouldn’t be used

contraindications

____ - a substance that when taken into the body alters its physiology. A substance used in the treatment, diagnosis, prevention, or mitifation of disease.

drug

_____ - science dealing with the properties of drugs and their effects on living systems

pharmacology

____ - separate and complemetary health-care profession concerned with collection, preparation, standarization, and dispensing of drugs.

pharmacy

____ - branch of pharmacology that deals directly with the effectiveness and safety of drugs in the clinical setting

clinical pharmcology

____ - the amount of drug given at one time

dose

____ - the amount of drug given, the route of administration, the interval between doeses, and the duration of therapy

dosage

_____ - relative measurement of biological activity

potency

_____ - effectiveness, the ability of a drug to control or cure an illness

efficacy

____ - highest drug concentration in a dosing interval

peak concentration

____ - lowest drug concentration in a dosing interval

trough concentration

_____ - lowest concentration that produces the desired effect

minimum effective concentration (MEC)

____ - lethal dose in 50% of animals

LD50

____ - dose that was effective in 50% of animals

ED50

____ - largest dose that does not cause toxicity

maximum nontoxic does (MNTD)

____ - measure of the relative desirability of a drug for attaining a particular medical end versus its risk of toxicity

theraputic index

____ - the drug concentrations associated with efficacy and not toxicity

therapeutic range

____ - describes the chemical composition of a drug; little practical use in the clinical setting (ex: D (-)-a-amino-p-hydroxybenzyl-penicillin)

chemical name

_____ - a more concise name given to the drug. Often referred to as the “generic” name. (ex: amoxicillin)

nonproprietary name

____ - unique name that the manufacturer gives to its specific brand of a drug. Referred to as the “trade name” (ex: Amoxil)

Proprietary name

Do you capitalize the nonproprietary name?

no

Do you capitalize the proprietary name?

yes

Is mitotane a proprietary or nonproprietary name?

nonproprietary

Is Lysodren a proprietary or nonproprietary name?

proprietary

____ - an adverse event that can be anticipated based on the known mechanism of the drug. Usually dose-dependent

Type A

____ - an adverse event that is idiosyncratic, unpredictable, and often non-dose-dependent

Type B

____ - describes the relationship between concentration and effect

pharmacodynamics

____ - a substance that induces a physiologic action. Enhances or mimics the effect. l

Agonist

____ - a substance that blocks the action of an agonist. Drug that blocks the effect.

Antagonist

_____ - Does not work at the same receptor, but its action serves to oppose that of another agonist.

Physiological antagonist

Agonist = ____

Antagonist = ____

Agonist = presser

Antagonist = blocker

____ - a compound naturally produced by the body which binds to and activates that receptor

endogenous agonist

____ - a drug that comes from the outside of the body that resembles the endogenous agonist and affects the receptor the same way

exogenous agonist

____ - drugs that bind to the receptor site the same way as the endogenous agonist, but fails to activate it preventing the action of endogenous agonists

antagonist

Endogenous agonist

Exogenous agonist

Antagonist

____ - binds to the same site as an agonist, but it doesn’t activate it, therefore blocking the agonist action. Used to prevent the activity of drugs and to reverse the effects of drugs.

competitive antagoists

T or F: A competitive antagonist can be overcome by adding more agonist

True

____ - found on nerves that are associated with pain pathways through the brain and spinal cord, because of this, they are responsible for strong analgesia

Mu receptor

____ - milder degree of analgesia than the mu receptor, can cause sedation without as much respiratory depression as mu.

kappa receptor

____ - binds to one or more types of receptors and causes certain effects (typically more pronounced than that of a partial)

pure agonist

What is an example of a pure agonist?

morphine

____ - binds to more than one type of receptor, and causes an effect at one receptor and no effect or less pronounced effect at another

partial agonist

What is an example of a partial agonist?

Buprenorphine

____ - a mathematical description of how the drug behaves in the body. Describes the relationship of dose to drug concentration

pharmacokinetics

____ - the disposition of a drug as described by its absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

ADME

_____ - when a large portion of an orally administered drug is inactivated by the liver before it enters the circulation. This is why some oral doses are higher than injectable doses.

first pass effect

____ - decreases the activity of metabolic enzymes, decreasing the rate of metabolism of other drugs.

enzyme inhibitor

____ - increases the number of enzymes available for metabolism, increasing the rate of metabolism of itself or other drugs. Requires several weeks

Enzyme inducer

____ - when peak and trough concentration do not vary between dosing intervals

steady-state

What are some signs associated with GI tract disease/injury?

• regurgitation/vomiting

• diarrhea

• weight loss

• colic

• bloating

• constipation

Most domestic animals have the same functionality of their GI system. What are they?

• Intake of food

• Absorption of nutrients

• Secretions

____ - means single stomach; includes dogs and cats

monogastic

____ - have 4 compartment stomachs; includes cattle and sheep

ruminants

____ - consume a plant diet but do not have rumens; includes horses

nonruminants

T or F: It is safe to treat horses with NSAIDS when they are not eating.

False

Why can’t horses vomit?

connection between the esophagus and stomach known as the cardiac sphincter