APII Ch. 19 Study Guide

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68 Terms

1

which type of specialized tissue is blood?

fluid connective tissue

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2

what two components make up blood?

plasma and formed elements

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3

what is the main component of plasma?

water

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4

which formed element is the most abundant in blood?

red blood cells

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5

defne hematocrit

the percentage of red blood cells within a sample of whole blood

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6

what occurs during hematopoiesis?

formed elements are produced

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7

list the three major plasma proteins in plasma

albumins, fibrinogens, and globulins

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8

list the three types of formed elements (know their abbreviations)

red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets

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9

which organ synthesizes and releases 90% of plasma proteins?

liver

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10

what are erythrocytes?

red blood cells

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11

why are RBCs red in color?

because they contain the red pigment hemoglobin

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12

what two gases are transported by hemoglobin?

oxygen and carbon dioxide

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13

which vein, located superior to the olecranon, is commonly used for venipuncture?

median cubital vein

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14

for what purpose would an arterial puncture be used?

for blood gas analysis, an indicator of lung function

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15

human RBCs do not contain organelles. what cellular processes are affected by this?

cannot divide or synthesize structural proteins or enzymes, cannot repair themselves, obtain the energy they need through the anaerobic metabolism of glucose that is absorbed from the surrounding plasma

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16

if every protein chain of hemoglobin has a heme associated with it, how many heme molecules and iron molecules are contained in one molecule of hemoglobin?

4 heme molecules and 4 iron molecules

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17

what is oxyhemoglobin? what is deoxyhemoglobin?

oxyhemoglobin: (HbO2) each heme unit holds an iron in such a way that the iron can interact with an oxygen molecule; deoxyhemoglobin: a hemoglobin molecule whose iron is not bound to oxygen

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18

compare oxygen binding capacities of adult vs fetal hemoglobin

fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen more readily than adult hemoglobin

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19

what is carbaminohemoglobin?

formed when the alpha and beta chains of hemoglobin then bind to carbon dioxide

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20

what is anemia?

a condition when the hematocrit is low or the Hb content of RBCs is reduced

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21

what is erythropoiesis and where does it occur?

the formation of RBCs and only in red bone marrow (myeloid tissue)

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22

which immature blood cell, accounting for less than 1% of the RBC population, is found in the blood?

reticulocyte

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23

which hormone directly stimulates erythropoiesis?

erythropoietin

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24

what is hypoxia?

a low oxygen level in tissues

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25

what is the intrinsic factor and what is its function? where is it produced?

to absorb vitamin B12; produced in the stomach

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26

what is hemolysis?

the rupture of RBCs

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27

define hemoglobinuria and hematuria

hemoglobinuria: when abnormally large numbers of red blood cells break down in the bloodstream, urine may turn red or brown; hematuria: the presence of intact RBCs in urine

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28

what is jaundice? what molecule causes the yellowing of the eyes and skin?

the combination of yellow skin and eyes caused by bilirubin

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29

what is iron-deficiency anemia?

results from a lack of iron in the diet or from problems with iron absorption

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30

which three of the greater than 50 blood antigens are most important when blood typing?

A, B, and Rh (or D)

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31

type A blood has __ surface antigens and _ antibodies.

A, B

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32

type B blood has ___ surface antigens and ___ antibodies.

B, A

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33

type AB blood has ___ surface antigens and ___ antibodies.

both A and B, neither A nor B

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34

type O blood has ___ surface antigens and ___ antibodies.

neither A nor B, both A and B

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35

if type B blood is mistakenly given to a person with type A, what will specifically occur in a stepwise fashion?

surface antigens, opposing antibodies, agglutination (clumping), and hemolysis

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36

what occurs to RBC if there is a transfusion reaction?

agglutinate and may also hemolyze

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37

what is cross match testing used for?

to avoid cross-reactions

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38

in emergency situations, which blood type is given because it is considered the “universal donor”?

type O

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39

what is the scientific name for hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

erythroblastosis fetalis

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40

HDN occurs when a Rh-___ mother has a second or subsequent pregnancy with a Rh-___ fetus.

negative, positive

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41

why doesn’t HDN usually occur during a first pregnancy of an Rh- mother and Rh+ fetus?

very few fetal cells enter the maternal bloodstream then, and thus the female’s immune system is not stimulated to produce anti-Rh antibodies

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42

what drug is administered to prevent an Rh- mother from being sensitized to an Rh+ baby’s antigen during the first pregnancy?

Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM)

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43

what is diapedesis (also known as emigration)?

after interaction with endothelial cells, the activated WBCs squeeze between adjacent endothelial cells and enter the surrounding tissue

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44

what is positive chemotaxis?

a characteristic in which all WBCs are attracted to specific chemical stimuli

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45

what are the two groups of white blood cells (WBCs) based on their appearance after staining?

granulocytes and agranulocytes

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46

list three types of WBC granulocytes; list two types of agranulocytes

granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils; agranulocytes: monocytes and lymphocytes

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47

which four types of WBCs are part of the body’s non-specific defenses?

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes

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48

which three types of WBCs are capable of phagocytosis?

neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages

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49

what is a respiratory burst? what two chemicals are released after a respiratory burst occurs?

when a neutrophil encounters a bacterium, it engulfs the invader, and the metabolic rate of the neutrophil increases dramatically; hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anions

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50

what two toxic compounds are released by eosinophils?

nitric oxide and cytotoxic enzymes

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51

which two conditions will cause an increased number of eosinophils?

parasitic infections and allergic reactions

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52

what two molecules are found in basophil granules?

histamine and heparin

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53

what are monocytes called after they enter the tissues?

macrophages

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54

what type of adaptive immunity is T lymphocyte (T cell) related?

cell-mediated immunity

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55

what type of adaptive immunity is B lymphocyte (B cell) related?

humoral immunity

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56

what are plasma cells and what do they secrete?

differential activated B cells that secrete antibodies

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57

which cells carry out immune surveillance and are important in preventing cancer?

natural killer cells (NK cells)

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58

define leukopenia and leukocytosis

leukopenia: indicates inadequate numbers of WBCs; leukocytosis: refers to excessive numbers of WBCs

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59

what is the difference between leukopoiesis and lymphocytopoiesis?

leukopoiesis: the process of WBC production; lymphocytopoiesis: the process of lymphocyte production

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60

what is the scientific name for platelets?

thrombocytes

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61

what is the major role of platelets?

the vascular clotting system

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62

what are megakaryocytes?

enormous cells with large nuclei

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63

what is hemostasis?

the stopping of bleeding

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64

what enzyme converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin?

thrombin

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65

which ion and which vitamin affect almost every aspect of the clotting process?

calcium ions and vitamin K

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66

what is fibrinolysis?

a process in which the clot gradually dissolves

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67

what is thrombocytopenia?

a condition in which the platelet count is too low

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68

what is hemophilia?

an inherited bleeding disorder in which the blood does not clot properly

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