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is RA more common in men or women?
women
what ages is RA most common?
40-50 years
RA
morning stiffness lasting > 30 minutes
RA PE
symmetrical soft, red, tender swelling in joints: MCP, PIP
-b/l ulnar deviation at MCP, boutinniere deformity and swan neck deformity
RA labs
postive RF or anti-cyclic cirullinated peptide antibodies, inc ESR, inc CRP
RA most commonly caused by
autoimmune destruction of synovial joints
RA tx
DMARDs (methotrexate)
lung cancer rf
hx of smoking, asbestos exposure
lung cancer symptoms
cough, hemoptysis, dyspnea, cp, weight loss, back pain, neurologic symptoms (CNS mets, paraneoplastic syndromes like Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome)
pancoast tumor
tumor in the superior sulcus, shoulder pain, horner syndrome
lung cancer labs
hypercalcemia (PTHrP or bone mets), hyponatremia (SIADH), exudative effusion
lung cancer dx
CXR, CT scan, bx
what is the most common form of lung cancer?
non-small cell
types of non-small cell lung ca
adenocarcinoma, squamous cell, large cell
tx of non-small cell lung cancers
depends on staging, surg, chemo, or tyrosine kinase inhibitors if positive for ALK or EGFR mutations
what is small cell lung cancer associated with?
neuroendocrine and paraneoplastic syndromes
tx of small cell lung cancer
mets early, chemo, XRT, or whole brain radiation
what is the leading cause of cancer related death among men and women?
lung ca
lung cancer screening recs
50-80 yrs old with 20 pack year hx or who currently smoke or who have within the last 15 years (low dose CT)
sepsis
infxn that leads to systemic inflammation
SIRS criteria
temp >38C (100.9) <36, WBC >12 <4, HR>90, RR>20 (consider infection, need 2/4)
what pathogen is the mcc of acute cystitis?
e. coli
transudative pleural effusion causes
Hydrostatic and osmotic factors - CCF, hepat and renal failure
exudative pleural effusion causes
infection, malignancy, trauma
hypocalcemia signs
Trousseau's sign
Chvostek's sign
how does vitamin d help increase calcium levels in the body?
by facilitating gastrointestinal calcium absorption
hypocalcemia sx
seizures, parasthesia's
hypocalcemia labs
Ca+ <8.5
hypocalcemia ekg
prolonged QT interval
hypocalcemia tx
Ca+ replacement orally for mild, Vitamin D for better Ca+ absorption
what are the two conditions associated with COPD?
emphysema and chronic bronchitis
gout
characterized by monosodium urate crystal deposition in the bones, soft tissues, and joints
what meds can contribute to acute gout flares?
loop and thiazide diuretics such as chlorthalidone
gout PE
stiff, tender, hot, erythematous and swollen joint
acute gout tx
oral NSAIDS, steroids, colchicine
chronic gout tx
xanthine oxidase inhibitors (e.g., allopurinol, febuxostat)
what will a synovial fluid analysis show for pseudogout?
positively birefringent, rhomboid shaped crystals
most common cause of minor hemoptysis
acute bronchitis
acute bronchitis mcc
virus
acute bronchitis sx
productive cough > 5 days
acute bronchitis PE
wheezing and rhonchi
acute bronchitis CXR
thickening of the bronchial walls in the lower lobes
acute bronchitis tx
symptomatic management (guaifenesin)
glioblastoma multiforme clinical
headache, seizure, cog or personality changes, focal weakness, visual changes
most common brain tumor in children
medulloblastoma
myasthenia gravis pathophysiology
formation of antibodies against postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
myasthenia gravis sx
ocular or generalized muscle weakness, bulbar weakness (dysarthria/dysphagia), ptosis and diplopia that is worse at the end of the day or following exertion
myasthenia gravis PE
applying ice pack to eyelid improves diplopia
myasthenia gravis dx
serologic testing for antibodies: anti-nAChR, anti-MuSK
electrophysiologic studies: repetitive nerve stimulation, single-fiber electromyography
myasthenia gravis tx
acetylcholintesterase inhibitors (pyridostigmine)
myasthenia gravis is associated with what conditions?
thymoma, thyroid disease, autoimmune disorders
CREST syndrome
Calcinosis, Raynaud's, esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia
CREST syndrome is for what condition?
systemic sclerosis
what are the three major features of scleroderma-related renal crisis?
abrupt onset of moderate to severe hypertension, acute kidney injury, and proteinuria
what two electrolyte side effects are seen with thiazide diuretics?
hypokalemia and hyponatremia
zollinger-ellison syndrome (ZES)
hypersecretion of gastric acid, fasting serum hypergastrinemia, and peptic ulcer disease with diarrhea
zollinger-ellison syndrome labs
fasting serum gastrin concentration and gastric pH level
what is ZES associated with?
MEN-1
causes of pill esophagitis
abx, nsaids, aspirin, bisphosphonates, ferrous sulfate, ascorbic acid (vit c), potassium chloride
what category of meds is the most frequent etiology of pill esophagitis in younger adults?
abx
what is the goal level with uric maintenance therapy?
serum uric acid at or below 6mg/dL
how would an osteoarthritis flare present on synovial fluid analysis?
clear, colorless, or straw-colored fluid, low white blood cell count (< 2,000/µL), low polymorphonuclear leukocytes (< 25%), negative crystals, and negative culture
mc bacterial cause of CAP
streptococcus pneumonia
CAP sx
fever, productive cough, dyspnea, fatigue
pneumonia dx
lobar consolidation
mc causitive pathogen
E. coli
tx for chronic prostatitis
levofloxacin x 6 weeks or bactrim
what is a graham steell murmur?
pulmonic regurgitation
bronchiectasis sign
signet ring sign
signet ring sign
dilated, air-filled bronchus that is contiguous with the smaller nodular opacity of a pulmonary artery
tram track appearance is associated with what condition?
bronchiectasis
what is the most common pathogen recovered from patients with bronchiectasis who do not have cystic fibrosis?
haemophilus influenzae
what additional meds should the pt with a STEMI be on post discharge?
lisinopril, metoprolol, atorvastatin
what are the recommended high-intensity statins?
atorvastatin 80mg or rosuvastatin 20-40mg
what are the four stages of metabolism of bilirubin by the liver?
uptake from the circulation, intracellular storage, conjugation with glucuronic acid, and biliary excretion
kernig sign
inability to fully extend the knees with hips flexed.
Brudzinski's sign
pain with resistance and involuntary flex of hip/knee when neck is flexed to chest when lying supine
neisseria meningitis meningitis
young, outbreaks in close quarters, septicemia
neisseria meningitidis tx
third gen cephalosporin, rifampin
what is the main risk factor for htn?
hypertension
what assessment tool is used in patients with transient ischemic attack to determine if they are at high risk of ischemic stroke?
age, blood pressure, clinical features, duration of symptoms, and diabetes (ABCD2) score.
multiple myeloma pt
older
mutiple myeloma sx
back pain
multiple myeloma s/sx
CRAB: hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, lytic bone lesions or back pain
multiple myeloma xray
lytic lesions
multiple myeloma peripheral blood smear
rouleaux formations
multiple myeloma serum protein electrophoresis
M spike
multiple myeloma protein electrophoresis urine analysis
Bence Jones proteins
what is multiple myeloma most commonly caused by?
single close plasma cell malignancy
what diuretics may be use in the setting of hypokalemia?
spironolactone, eplerenone, and triamterene
fibromuscular dysplasia
noninflammatory and nonatherosclerotic condition that can cause arterial stenosis, occlusion, aneurysm, dissection, and toruosity.
what are the mc involved arteries in FMD?
renal arteries
who is mc affected by FMD?
female pts
vit b12 deficiency lab findings
elevated MMA and elevated homocysteine levels
what valve is most commonly affected in infective carditis?
mitral valve
what pharmacologic therapies are available to aid in smoking cessation?
bupropion, varenicline, and nicotine replacement therapy.
what is the chief histologic pattern associated with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
a heterogenous appearance with alternation areas of normal lung, fibrosis, fibroblast foci, and honeycomb change
which class of blood pressure medications should be avoided in patients on albuterol?
non-selective betablockers such as propranolol shoul be avoided due to opposing mechanisms of action
symptoms caused by atenolol
fatigue
sleep disturbance
bronchospasm
bradycardia
heart failure
impaired peripheral circulation
decreased exercise tolerance
true or false: beta-3 receptor beta blockers induce the breakdown of fat cells
true