Prenatal Exam 2

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Last updated 2:36 PM on 3/25/26
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1
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What should be done if one partner is identified as a carrier?

The reproductive partner should be offered testing to complete the risk assessment and inform further genetic counseling.

2
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What is the role of family history in carrier screening?

To assess the risk of carrying the same mutation based on ethnic background and consanguinity.

3
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What is the carrier frequency for cystic fibrosis in the white population?

Approximately 1 in 25.

4
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What gene is associated with spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)?

SMN1 gene located at 5q13.2.

5
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What is the carrier frequency for spinal muscular atrophy?

Between 1 in 40 and 1 in 60.

6
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What is the major protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen?

Hemoglobin

7
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What are the two families of hemoglobin genes?

The alpha family is on chromosome 16 (4 genes) and the beta family on chromosome 11 (2 genes).

8
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What is the major form of hemoglobin in adults?

Hemoglobin A (Hgb A).

9
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What genetic mutation causes sickle cell disease?

A point mutation in the beta-globin chain (c.20A>T in the HBB gene).

10
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Major adult hemoglobin is made of:

2 alpha chains + 2 beta chains

11
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Minor adult hemoglobin is made of:

2 alpha chains + 2 delta chains

12
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Typical hemoglobin percentage in 3 forms:

- Major form is Hgb A (>96%)

- Minor form is A2 (1-3%)

- HbF (1-2%)

13
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What is the prevalence of sickle cell trait (HbAS) in African Americans?

1 in 10.

14
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What is the typical presentation of sickle cell disease?

Pain episodes, frequent infections, increased swelling, and delayed growth.

15
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What is the significance of hemoglobin electrophoresis?

It measures levels of various hemoglobins and detects abnormal hemoglobin.

16
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What is the recommendation for hemoglobinopathy testing according to ACOG?

Offer universal hemoglobinopathy testing to persons planning pregnancy or at the initial prenatal visit.

17
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What is the de novo mutation rate for spinal muscular atrophy?

2%.

18
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What is the relationship between SMN2 and SMA severity?

The number of SMN2 copies can offset malfunctioning SMN1 genes but is not 100% predictive.

19
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What is the typical hemoglobin composition in adults?

Major form is Hgb A (>96%), minor form is A2 (1-3%), and a small percentage of HbF (1-2%).

20
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What are the common types of hemoglobin in adults?

Fetal Hemoglobin (Hgb F), Major adult hemoglobin (Hgb A), and Minor adult hemoglobin (Hgb A2).

21
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What is the impact of the polyT tract on cystic fibrosis?

It affects the severity and penetrance of CF, particularly in individuals with certain genotypes.

22
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What is the typical clinical significance of Hemoglobin C?

Causes mild anemia and is not usually clinically significant

23
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What is the significance of the SNP (g.27134T>G) in SMN1?

It is sometimes associated with a higher risk of having 2 SMN1 copies in cis.

24
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What is the relationship between genotype and phenotype in cystic fibrosis?

The severity of pulmonary disease can vary among individuals with identical genotypes.

25
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What are the potential outcomes if both partners are carriers for the same condition?

Prenatal diagnosis and advanced reproductive technologies may be discussed to reduce risk.

26
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What causes Beta Thalassemia?

Not enough beta chains are produced, leading to an excess of unstable alpha chains.

27
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What are the two types of Beta Thalassemia?

Beta Thalassemia minor (heterozygous) and Beta Thalassemia major (homozygous or compound heterozygous).

28
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What are common features of Beta Thalassemia?

Severe anemia, often transfusion dependent, poor growth, jaundice, and splenomegaly.

29
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What is the carrier frequency of Beta Thalassemia in Mediterranean populations?

1 in 20.

30
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What is the primary cause of Alpha Thalassemia?

A shortage of alpha chains, leading to an excess of unstable beta tetramers (hemoglobin H).

31
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What is the most common cause of Alpha Thalassemia?

Whole gene deletions in HBA1/HBA2 genes.

32
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How many alpha globin gene copies can an individual be missing in Alpha Thalassemia?

From 1 to 4 copies.

33
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What lab values may indicate suspicion of Beta Thalassemia?

Low MCV and high A2 levels.

34
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What is the best test for diagnosing Alpha Thalassemia?

Sequencing is the best test for these conditions.

35
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What is Fragile X Syndrome?

A genetic disorder caused by CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene, associated with intellectual disability.

36
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What is the carrier frequency of Fragile X Syndrome?

Approximately 1 in 300.

37
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What are the symptoms of Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS)?

Intention tremor and progressive cerebellar ataxia after age 50.

38
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What is Tay-Sachs Disease?

A lysosomal storage disorder leading to neurodegenerative changes, characterized by progressive weakness and loss of motor skills.

39
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What gene is implicated in Tay-Sachs Disease?

HEXA gene, which is necessary for degradation of GM2 ganglioside.

40
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What is the carrier frequency of Tay-Sachs Disease in Ashkenazi Jewish populations?

Approximately 1 in 30.

41
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What is Gaucher Disease?

A lysosomal storage disorder leading to lipid buildup, particularly glucocerebroside, in bone marrow, spleen, and liver.

42
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What are the three types of Gaucher Disease?

Type 1 (no CNS involvement), Type 2 (severe neurologic disease), Type 3 (slower progression of neurologic disease).

43
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What gene is associated with Gaucher Disease?

GBA gene, which is implicated in glucosylceramidase enzyme activity.

44
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What is the carrier frequency of Gaucher Disease in Ashkenazi Jewish populations?

1 in 15.

45
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What is the recommended approach for carrier screening according to ACMG?

Carrier screening should be ethnic and population neutral, promoting equity and inclusion.

46
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What is the difference between sequencing-based and genotype-based carrier screening?

Sequencing studies whole genes/sequence, while genotyping determines the presence of known variants.

47
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What are the limitations of sequencing-based carrier screening?

Only reports pathogenic variants and may miss less common or characterized variants.

48
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What is the importance of biochemical testing for Tay-Sachs Disease?

It measures HEXA enzyme activity, which is crucial for diagnosis.

49
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What are the clinical features of Tay-Sachs Disease?

Progressive weakness, loss of motor skills, decreased visual attentiveness, and a cherry-red spot in the eye.

50
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What is the typical age of onset for symptoms of Tay-Sachs Disease?

Symptoms typically appear in infancy.

51
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What is the relationship between Gaucher Disease and Parkinson's Disease?

Carrier status for Gaucher may serve as a risk factor for Parkinson's Disease due to reduced penetrance.

52
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What is the role of the LDLR gene in genetic conditions?

It is associated with Familial Hypercholesterolemia.

53
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What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle used for?

To determine allele and genotype frequencies in a population under certain conditions.

54
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What are the five conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

No natural selection, random mating, no mutations, a closed population, and a large population size.

55
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What does the Hardy-Weinberg formula p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 represent?

It represents the frequencies of homozygous dominant, heterozygous, and homozygous recessive individuals in a population.

56
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How is the frequency of the recessive allele calculated in Hardy-Weinberg?

Using the formula q = √(q2), where q2 is the percentage of homozygous recessive individuals.

57
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What is Bayesian analysis used for in genetic counseling?

To modify risk assessments based on additional family history or test results.

58
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What is the chance of unaffected siblings being carriers of a recessive condition?

They have a 2/3 chance of being carriers.

59
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What is the importance of ancestry in carrier screening?

Certain conditions should be offered based on specific ancestries, such as Tay-Sachs disease for French Canadian or Cajun ancestry.

60
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What is the purpose of expanded carrier screening panels?

To test for multiple genetic conditions simultaneously, providing a broader assessment of genetic risks.

61
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What is the estimated frequency of cystic fibrosis in the White population of the U.S.?

About 1 in 2,500 babies.

62
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What is the relationship between Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and population genetics?

It provides a model for understanding genetic variation and allele frequencies in populations.

63
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What does the term 'penetrance' refer to in genetics?

The likelihood that a person with a specific genotype will exhibit the associated phenotype.

64
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Why is it important to understand the differences between ancestry-based and expanded carrier screening?

To ensure appropriate testing and counseling based on individual and family genetic backgrounds.

65
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What is the purpose of calculating residual risks in genetic counseling?

To assess the likelihood of a genetic condition in a pregnancy based on carrier screening results.

66
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What does the term 'conditional probability' mean in the context of Bayesian analysis?

The probability of an event occurring given that another event has already occurred.

67
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What is the residual carrier risk (RCR)?

The chance that an individual with a negative carrier screening result could still be a carrier of the disease.

68
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Why is a negative carrier result not equivalent to 0% risk?

Because carrier frequencies and detection rates vary, and not all pathogenic variants may be detected.

69
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What does the residual risk formula calculate?

Residual risk = carrier frequency x (1 - detection rate).

70
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What is the prevalence of consanguinity in the Near/Middle East and Northern Africa?

20-50% of marriages are consanguineous

71
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What are the increased prenatal risks associated with consanguineous couples?

Congenital abnormalities, intrauterine fetal demise, neonatal death, developmental delay, and autism spectrum disorder.

72
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What is the coefficient of inbreeding (COI)?

The probability that an individual will inherit two identical alleles for a given gene.

73
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What does the coefficient of relationship (COR) indicate?

It indicates the proportion of genes on average that consanguineous individuals would share by descent from common ancestors.

74
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What is the formula for calculating the coefficient of inbreeding (COI)?

F = Σ(1/2)^n, where n is the number of generations to the common ancestor.

75
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What is the minimum distance of kin allowed for marriage in Wisconsin?

Second cousins.

76
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What is the effect of genotyping versus sequencing on residual carrier risk for non-European individuals?

Genotyping can lead to a greater RCR due to undetected pathogenic variants.

77
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What is the significance of updating residual carrier risks (RCRs)?

RCRs need to be continually updated as new pathogenic variants are discovered or reclassified.

78
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What is the role of genetic testing in prenatal risk assessment?

It provides information on the likelihood of fetal genetic conditions based on parental genotypes.

79
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What is the significance of the term 'identical by descent' (IBD)?

It refers to alleles inherited from a common ancestor, which can increase the risk of recessive disorders.

80
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What is consanguinity?

The genetic relationship between individuals who are closely related, such as first cousins.

81
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What stigma is associated with incestual relationships in the U.S.?

It's illegal and there's a social stigma

82
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What is Neu-Laxova syndrome (NLS)?

An autosomal recessive disorder characterized by severe intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), microcephaly, and various malformations.

83
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What are common clinical features of Neu-Laxova syndrome?

IUGR, microcephaly, CNS malformations, craniofacial anomalies, tissue edema, and limb deformities.

84
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What is the significance of regions of homozygosity (ROH) in genetic counseling?

ROH can indicate increased risk for recessive genetic disorders in consanguineous couples.

85
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What is a Robertsonian translocation?

A chromosomal rearrangement involving two acrocentric chromosomes that fuse at their centromeres.

86
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What is a reciprocal translocation?

A chromosomal rearrangement where two non-homologous chromosomes exchange segments.

87
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What percentage of the population is expected to have a balanced translocation?

About 0.1% to 0.3%.

88
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How does the risk of balanced translocations change in individuals with recurrent pregnancy loss?

The risk increases to about 2-5%.

89
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What genes are associated with NLS?

PHGDH, PSAT1, and PSPH

90
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What are the implications of having a child with a rare condition for future pregnancies?

Parents may perceive risks differently, affecting their emotional response to new pregnancy risks.

91
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What is the classic appearance of hands and feet in Neu-Laxova syndrome?

Described as an 'inflated rubber glove' appearance.

92
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What is the significance of chromosome 1p13.2-p11.2 in NLS?

It contains the PHGDH gene, which is associated with Neu-Laxova syndrome.

93
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What are the common findings in NLS regarding skin and limbs?

Ichthyotic skin and limb anomalies such as syndactyly and rocker bottom feet.

94
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What are the challenges associated with reproductive risks in consanguineous couples?

Determining at-risk recessive conditions and managing parental guilt regarding relatedness.

95
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What are the typical outcomes for a balanced translocation carrier?

They are usually unaffected phenotypically, but may have reproductive challenges.

96
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What is a balanced reciprocal translocation?

A chromosomal rearrangement where segments from two different chromosomes are exchanged without any genetic material being lost.

97
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What are the potential reproductive outcomes for parents with a balanced translocation?

They may have typical embryos, balanced translocations, or unbalanced translocations that could lead to health issues.

98
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What are the two types of inversions in chromosomes?

Pericentric (includes the centromere) and paracentric (does not include the centromere).

99
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What are the potential outcomes of crossing over in pericentric inversions?

It can lead to recombinant chromosomes that may be partially trisomic or monosomic.

100
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What is the typical outcome for children of parents with paracentric inversions?

Most will have either the inversion or typical chromosomes, with some risk of miscarriages.

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