less potent; eliminated in a metabolically similar way
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Compare sufentanil to fentanyl
5-7 times more potent; eliminated in a metabolically similar way
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Compare the duration of action of non-selective β-receptor agonists and β2-selective agonists?
non-selective β-receptor agonists are short-acting β2-selective agonists are longer-acting
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Describe anaesthesia by injection into trigger points
used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in horses with recurrent pain
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Describe buprenorphine
synthetic, partial opiate agonist; 30 times as potent as morphine; produces dose-related analgesia; exhibits many of the same actions as opiate agonists
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Describe butorphanol
synthetic partial opiate agonist; related structurally to morphine but exhibits pharmacologic actions similar to other partial agonists; more potent than morphine, pentazocine, meperidine; antitussive
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Describe codeine
naturally occurring alkaloid with similar structure to morphine; antitussive drug; weak analgesic for mild pain; rarely used in veterinary medicine
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Describe COX-1
expressed in virtually all tissues; catalyses the formation of constitutive prostaglandins, which mediate a variety of normal physiologic effects
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Describe COX-2
activated in damaged and inflamed tissues; catalyses formation of inducible prostaglandin; involved in thermoregulation and pain response to injury
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Describe epidural anaesthesia
injected into epidural space, blocking spinal roots; surgery to abdomen, pelvis or extremities, mainly when general anaesthesia cannot be used; slower onset compared to spinal anaesthesia
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Describe ethyl biscoumacetate
used for prophylaxis and treatment of thrombosis and embolism
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Describe fentanyl
synthetic opioid; very potent opiate agonist (IV, transdermal); transdermal patches used in dogs and cats; used for adjunctive control of postoperative care; parenteral solution contains droperidol (butryphenon[sedative]) induces considerable neuroleptanalgesia
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Describe highly soluble sulfonamides
rapidly excreted mostly in unchanged form; urinary tract infections
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Describe how eyeball position can be used to test depth of anaesthesia
surgical anaesthesia (halothane, isoflurane): eyeball is rotated medially and ventrally; early and late anaesthesia: eyeball is centrally placed
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Describe hydromorphone
morphine derivative with similar duration of effect; produces less emetic effect than morphine, but emesis and nausea occur frequently
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Describe infiltration anaesthesia
direct injection into tissues to reach nerve branches and terminals; used in minor surgery
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Describe intermediate-acting sulfonamides
plasma levels are obtained in 12-24 hours
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Describe intravenous regional anaesthesia
drug is injected intravenously, distal to a pressure cuff to arrest blood flow; remains effective until the circulation is restored; used for surgery, dentistry, analgesia
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Describe location, formation, and structure of heparins
obtained from bovine liver and lung tissue, or porcine intestinal mucosa; naturally formed in mast cells, basophils, and vascular epithelium; heterogenous mixture of sulphated mucopolysaccharides
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Describe long-acting sulfonamides
50μg/ml plasma levels obtained 24 hours after doing (Borgal, Trimetox)
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Describe oxymorphone
morphine derivative with 10 times the potency; produces less emesis, nausea, and sedation than morphine and hydromorphone on cats and dogs; causes less histamine release in dogs
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Describe pentazocine
similar pharmacologic effects as butorphanol; effective for mild to moderate pain with 1-3 hour effect; less sedation compared to other opioids; can cause excitement and tremors at high doses
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Describe plane 1 of anaesthesia
miosis, nystagmus, eyes become fixed centrally (cats and dogs), skin and pedal reflexes lost
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Describe plane 2 of anaesthesia
loss of palpebral and laryngeal reflexes; respiration is regular
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Describe plane 3 of anaesthesia
respiration is depressed; cardiac contractility and blood pressure is reduced; corneal reflex is lost
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Describe plane of anaesthesia
overdose; paralysis of the intercostal muscles and shallow abdominal respiration; pupils very dilated; pupillary reflex is lost
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Describe poorly soluble sulfonamides
management of ulcerative colitis in dogs (sulfasalazine); prevention and treatment of caecal and intestinal coccidiosis (sulfaquinoxaline, sulfaclozine); intestinal infection
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Describe remifentanil
undergoes non-hepatic metabolism (muscle and intestinal) resulting in short half-life (30 mins) and rapid clearance in dogs
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Describe salicylic acid and sulfur as keratoplastics and keratolytics
keratoplastics at lower concentrations (
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Describe short-acting sulfonamides
blood concentration remains above 50μg/ml for less than 12 hours after 1 dose (Norodine gran.)
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Describe sodium warfarin
most commonly used vitamin K antagonist; indicated for blood thinning as prevention of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism of aorta; higher doses are toxic and cause haemorrhagic diathesis
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Describe spinal anaesthesia
drug is injected into the subarachnoid space to act on spinal roots and spinal cord; surgery to abdomen, pelvis or extremities, mainly when general anaesthesia cannot be used
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Describe streptokinase
product of some strains of haemolytic streptococci of group C; catalyses conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which prevents the formation of blood clots or dissolves already formed clots
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Describe the closed method of administration of general inhalation anaesthetics
use of anaesthesia apparatus and insertion of endotracheal tube; depending on instrumentation, it has 2 modifications: 1-way and 2-way advantage: low consumption of anaesthetic
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Describe the corneal reflex
obtained by gentle palpation of the lateral aspect of the cornea causing the closure of the eyelids; disappears in plane 2 of stage 3 (not always reliable in dog, particularly if eyeball is rotated)
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Describe the disk diffusion method (antibiogram)
qualitative method; antibiotic disks put on bacterial culture; measurement of inhibition zone; compare to interpretive criteria (disk producers)
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Describe the E-test
quantitative method; strips with concentration gradient; MIC is determined as the intersection of the growth inhibition zone and calibrated test strip; based on interpretive data established by manufacturer; strain sensitive, resistant, intermediate
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Describe the laryngeal/swallowing reflex
stimulated by attempting to pass an endotracheal tube; disappears in plane 2 of stage 3
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Describe the open method of administration of general inhalation anaesthetics
substance is dripped onto gauze in a mask; anaesthetic acts slowly; manifestations of excitation are more intense; applicable to small animals
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Describe the palpebral reflex
simulated by tapping the skin in the inner corner of the eye or by running a finger along the eyelashes; reflex disappears in plane 2 of stage 3 in small animals
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Describe the pedal reflex
obtained by adding firm pressure to the interdigital skin in dogs and cats, squeezing claws together in cattle and swine, and firm pressure on the pastern of horses; reflex disappears in early stage 3, plane 1 and indicates deep anaesthesia
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Describe the pharmacokinetics of sulfonamides
binds to plasma albumin, therefore high doses are required to penetrate target tissues; elimination in urine, perspiration, teats, bile, milk
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Describe the principle of dilution methods for testing of effectiveness of antibiotics
liquid medium with different concentrations of antimicrobial agent added to each tube/well; after addition of inoculum and incubation the effectiveness of drug is evaluated according to the growth of microorganisms; turbidity means strain is resistant
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Describe the pupillary responses
pupil dilated in early excitement stage 2; becomes progressively constricted in stage 3; dilates again with entry into stage 4 (heavily influenced by pre-medication, species variations exist)
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Describe the semi-closed method of administration of general inhalation anaesthetics
substance is collected in a special bag where is is reused effectively for re-action
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Describe the skin reflex and muscle relaxation
(jaw tone) decreases from maximum in stage 2 to stage 3; muscles relaxed and skin reflex is lost in plane 1 of stage 3
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Describe the use of etomidate
ultra-short acting hypnotic sedative with GABA-like effects
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Describe the use of ketamine
rapid acting general anaesthetic with analgesic activity, slow onset
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Describe the use of propofol
onset of action is rapid, induction is smooth, duration of action short (2-10 minutes), possible to use as a continuous infusion
directly at the site of bleeding to control bleeding by constricting blood vessels and tissue to help slow and stop blood flow
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How are cefalosporins divided?
1, 2, 3, 4 generations
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How are lyophilised concentrates used?
applied to the skin (or a particular area) to help control capillary bleeding; normally absorbed by the body
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How are macrolides divided?
1,2 generations
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How are parasite infestations prevented?
employing complex prevention (healthy animals and surroundings); improvement of physiological state of animal and host's resistance; sanitation of pastureland; preventative and therapeutic application of active substances
How are sulfonamides classified according to duration?
short-acting, intermediate-acting, long-acting
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How are sulfonamides classified according to solubility/use?
highly soluble, poorly soluble, topical
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How are tetracyclines divided?
1, 2, 3 generations
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How can dimeticon and simeticon be administered?
stomach tube or drench (diluted with water), or injected directly into the rumen
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How can general anaesthesia be induced?
single drug or combination (hypnotics, sedatives, paralytics, analgesics)
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How can myoclonus and excitement during induction or recovery of etomidate be prevented?
adequate pre-induction sedation with a tranquiliser or opioid drug
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How do anticoagulants work?
block either synthesis of clotting factor VII (prothrombin) or the formation of fibrinogen
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How do calcium chelators work?
chelate calcium that catalyses conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (with coagulation factors)
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How do enzymes work as anticoagulants?
dissolve blood clots; inactivate fibrinogen and fibrin
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How do glucocorticoid drugs work?
(suppress virtually every component of the inflammatory process) inhibit PLA2; decrease synthesis of interleukins and other proinflammatory cytokines; suppress cell-mediated immunity; reduce complement synthesis; decrease production and activity of leukocytes
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How do NSAIDs work?
inhibit the activity of cyclooxygenase-1 and cyclooxygenase-2 that catalyse conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins, thromboxanes, prostacyclins (mediators of inflammation)
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How do sympathotropic agents work?
bind to adrenergic receptors
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How do the subsystems of the autonomic nervous system work?
one activates physiological response and the other inhibits it
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How do vitamin K antagonists work?
interfere with vitamin K dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) in hepatic synthesis of vitamin K
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How does acetaminophen compare to aspirin?
weaker anti-inflammatory effects; similar analgesic and antipyretic effects
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How does intensity of pulmonary ventilation affect the resorption of anaesthetics?
respiratory diseases decrease the resorption
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How does meloxicam work?
potent inhibitor of prostaglandin synthesis
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How does propofol cause direct myocardial depression?
decrease in Ca2+ and myofilament sensitivity to Ca2+
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how does Tepoxalin work?
dual inhibitor of both COX-1 and COX-2, and 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOX)
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How does the solubility of anaesthetics affect the resorption?
anaesthetic with low solubility in blood diffused from the lungs into arterial blood more quickly and there is only a relatively small number of molecules for achieving the increase in partial pressure of arterial tension
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How is etomidate metabolised?
rapid hepatic hydrolysis (does not accumulate)
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How is propofol metabolised?
glucuronide synthase in liver
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How is thiopental metabolised?
slowly by hepatic microsomal system
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How long after administration do dimeticon and simeticon act after oral administration?
5-15 minutes
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How many planes are there in stage 3 of anaesthesia?
4
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How should glucocorticoids be used?
in conjunction with therapies that target the underlying cause
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In which animals is kaolin less effective?
young animals
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In which animals is kaolin more effective?
older animals
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In which animals is propofol used and for what?
cats and dogs, short procedures or prior to inhalant anaesthesia
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Neuroleptanaesthesia
general anaesthesia induced by the intravenous administration of neuroleptic drugs in combination with inhalation of a weak anaesthetic
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Neuroleptanaglgesia
state of sedation and pain control induced for medical procedure by a combination of opioid analgesics and neuroleptics
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What active substance is used to treat cryptosporidiosis?
paramomycin
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What active substance is used to treat leishmania spp. infections?