Pharmacology Final Past Paper Questions (MCQ Only)

Symptomatic therapy is?
a. Using the substances which the organism is not able to produce in sufficient amounts
b. Destroying the ethiological agent causing disease (antibodies against bacteria)
c. Treating the symptoms
d. Using very low drug concentrations (subliminal doses) for treating diseases

c

With regard to drug- receptor binding:
a. A competitive antagonist has no intrinsic activity
b. A partial antagonists has less receptor affinity than a full agonist
c. KD (the dissociation constant) is maximal intrinsic efficacy

a

Concerning renal excretion?
a. Almost all drugs are filtered by the glomerulus
b. A lipid-soluble, filtered drug will likely be reabsorbed by passive diffusion
c. pH partitioning (drug is ionized at urinary pH) enhances excretion
d. Weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urinary pH

b, c, d

Circle the group of antibacterials with bacteriostatic effect?
a. Macrolides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Sulfonamides
d. Beta-lactams
e. Aminoglycosides
f. Quinolones
g. Amphenicols

a, b, c, g

Mechanism of action of beta-lactamase antibiotics is based on?
a. Competitive inhibition of para-aminobenzoic acid
b. The binding of 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes
c. The binding on the specific binding protein
d. The inhibition the active site of the transpeptidase enzyme that cross-links the peptidoglycan strands
e. Activation of autolytic enzymes

d, e

Cephalosporins are indicated to treatment of?
a. Skin infections
b. Meningitis
c. Urinary tract infections
d. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
e. Pneumonia
f. Diarrhoea

b, c, e

Which of the amfenicols are used to therapy of infections of respiratory and gastrointestinal tract?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Thiamphenicol
c. Florenicol
d. Azidamphenicol

b, c

Tetracyclines are indicated in?
a. Local, organs and systemic infections
b. Nephritis and hepatitis
c. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
d. Yeast infections

a

Lincomycin and clindamycin belong to?
a. Macrolides
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Lincosamides
d. Tetracyclines

c

Rifampicin (rifampin) is used in treatment of?
a. Mastitis in cows
b. Chronic granulomatous skin infection in dog
c. Dysentery in swine
d. Mycoplasma infections in poultry

a, b

Sulfonamides are the structural analogues of
a. Deoxyribonucleic acid
b. Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
c. Folic acid
d. Clavulanic acid

b

Quinolones are contraindicated?
a. In dogs during the rapid growth phase (between 2 and 8 months of age)
b. In geriatric animals
c. In animals with pyodermia
d. In animals with known or suspected CNS disorders
e. In animals with mma-syndrome
f. In animals in pregnancy and during lactation

a

The group of antihelmintics belong?
a. Antiprotozoals
b. Antitrematodals
c. Antinematodal
d. Anticestodal
e. Ectoparasiticides (pesticides)

b, c, d

Metronidazole and dimetrazole are used for treatment of
a. Coccidiosis
b. Antitrichomoniasis and antihistomoniasis
c. Metritis
d. The CNS disorders

b

Mebendazol acts as an
a. Antinematodal
b. Antitrematodal
c. Anticestodal
d. Antiectoparasitical agent

a, c

Macrocyclic lactones are not effective against
a. Nematodes
b. Trematodes
c. Cestodes
d. Ectoparasites

b, c

Which of the following antiparasitic drugs are contraindicated for some dog breeds (collie, sheltie, long-haired whippet, Australian shepherd)
a. Moxidectin
b. Nitroscanate
c. Ivermectin
d. Eprinomectin

c

Cypermetrine is an
a. Antinematodical
b. Antitrematodical
c. Anticestodical
d. Antiectoparasitical (pesticide) agent

d

Which of the following agents is not local anaesthetic
a. Procaine
b. Tetracaine
c. Metacaine
d. Tiletamine
e. Lidocaine

c, d

Azaperone is used as
a. Anticonvulsive
b. Neuroleptic
c. Injection anaesthetic
d. Ataractic agent

b

Alpha-2-adrenergic agonistic sedatives are
a. Diazepam and zolazepam
b. Detomidine and medetomidine
c. Xylazine and romifidine
d. Azaperone and droperidol

b, c

The seizures of smooth muscle (GIT) are relaxed by
a. Meloxicam
b. Atipamezole
c. Metamizole
d. Triamcinolone

c

Benazepril
a. Stimulates the dopamine receptors
b. Stimulates the production of surfactant
c. Inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
d. Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase (PDE)

c

Mucolytics
a. Break down respiratory mucus & enhance clearance
b. Decrease the frequency and intensity of cough
c. Stimulate the removal of mucus by coughing
d. Stimulate the β2-adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle

a, c

An antiemetic effect has
a. Xylazine
b. Metoclopromide
c. Dimeticon
d. Membuton

b

The steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
a. Inhibit the synthesis of cytokines
b. Inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators
c. Inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
d. Inhibit the enzyme hyaluronsynthetase

a, b

Flunixin is indicated in
a. Bronchopneumonia
b. Diarrhoea
c. Acute & chronic inflammatory disease of skeletal apparatus
d. Heart failure

b, c

Oxytocin is indicated
a. In atony of uterus after parturition
b. In agalactia
c. In spasms of uterus
d. As a protective of pregnancy

a, b

Chlorhexidine is used as
a. Anesthetic
b. Antiflogistic
c. Antiseptic
d. Antiparasitic agent

c

Each drug has got the following names
a. Chemical
b. Physical
c. Non-proprietary
d. Trade

a, c, d

Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the..... and pharmacodynamics is the effect of the.....
a. Drug on a drug. body on the drug
b. Body on the drug. drug on a drug
c. Drug on the body. body on the drug
d. Body on the drug. drug on the body
e. Drug on a drug. drug on a drug

d

Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms is used for peptides, amino acids, glucose & other large or insoluble molecules?
a. Aqueous diffusion
b. Lipid diffusion
c. Carrier molecules
d. Endocytosis & exocytosis

c, d

Which of the following biotransformation reactions is phase II and not phase I?
a. Oxidations
b. Reductions
c. Conjugations
d. Deaminations
e. Hydrolysis

c

Classify the antibiotic agents according to the mechanism of action and name the examples of pharmacological groups to each mode

Cell envelope antibiotics - cell wall synthesis inhibitors: β-lactams, glycopeptides, polymyxins
Protein synthesis inhibitors: tetracyclines, amphenicols, aminoglycosides, macrolides,
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors: rifamycins

Amoxicillin and ampicillin are penicillins
a. With narrow spectrum (natural penicillins)
b. With extended spectrum (e.g. NB ureidopenicillins)
c. Penicillinase-resistant
d. With broad spectrum (anti-pseudomonal penicillins)

d

Tetracyclines
a. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes
b. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of microbial ribosomes
c. Inhibit the synthesis of cell wall
d. Inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase

a

Which of the macrolides is mostly found in clinical applications in veterinary medicine?
a. Erythromycin
b. Tylosin
c. Tilmicosin
d. Azithromycin
e. Tulathromycin

a, b, c

To the group of aminoglycosides belong
a. Lincomycin and clindamycin
b. Streptomycin, neomycin, kanamycin
c. Gentamycin, amikacin, spectinomycin
d. Rifampicin and rifaximin

b, c

Valnemuline is used for treatment of
a. Vulvovaginitis in mares
b. Dysentery in swine
c. Acute masitis of cows

b

Bacitracine is used to treat
a. Upper respiratory tract infections
b. Skin, ear & eye infections
c. Gastrointestinal infections
d. Bovine mastitis

b

Effect of quinolones is
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. In low doses bacteriostatic
d. In high doses bactericidal

b

Which of the listed agents are used to control coccidiosis?
a. Metronidazole, dimetridazole, ronidazole
b. Homidium, imidocarb, quinuronium
c. Monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin
d. Diclazuril, nicarbazin, robenidin

c, d

Febantel is an
a. Antinematodical
b. Antitrematocidal
c. Anticestodical
d. Antiprotozoal agent

a, c

Which of the following belong to ectoparasiticides?
a. Benzimidazoles
b. Macrocyclic lactones
c. Halogenated salicylanilides
d. Ionophores

b, c

Amitraz is effective against
a. Fleas and lice
b. Ticks
c. Mange in cattle, pig and dog
d. Tapeworms

b, c

Underline the correct statement
Penicillin G [is - is not] suitable for PO admin
Chloramphenicol [is allowed - is prohibited] for treatment in food animals
Bacitracin has a [bacteriostatic - bactericidal] effect
Diaveridine has got major affinity to dihydrofolate reductase of [protozoa - bacteria]
Albendazole [has no - has] embryotoxic effect in recommended dose

is not
is prohibited
bactericidal
protozoa
has no

Halothane is used to
a. Induce anaesthesia
b. Alleviate the joints pain
c. Regulate of cardiac arrhytmias
d. Improve the hepatic metabolism

a

Propofol is
a. General IV anaesthesia
b. Neuroleptic
c. Parasympathomimetic
d. Sedative

a

Drugs suppressing fear, tension & aggression in animals are called
a. Sedatives
b. Anticonvulsives
c. Tranquilisers
d. Analeptics

a, c

Romifidine is used as
a. Neuroleptic
b. Anticonvulsive
c. Sedative
d. Spasmolytic drug

c

As an antitussive agent is used
a. Theophyline
b. Dextromethorphan
c. Clenbuterol
d. Acetylcysteine
e. Codeine

b, e

Effect of meloxicam is
a. Anti-inflammatory
b. Antipyretic
c. Analgetic
d. Chondroprotective

a, b, c

Salivary stimulants
a. Increase the appetite in animal to consume feed & promote digestion
b. Relieve or stop the symptoms of diarrhoea
c. Operate supplementation in the disorders of energy supply precursors in digestive tract of polygastric animals
d. Stimulate the production and secretion of bile, pancreatic and gastric enzyme

a

Dimethicon is indicated in
a. Foam tympany in ruminants
b. Acute bloat in rabbits
c. Hepatopathies of ruminants and horses
d. Vomiting in dogs after chemotherapy
e. Ketoses of ruminants

a, b

Frequency and force of uterine contraction is stimulated by
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Estradiol
d. Ergometrine

b

Which of the following agents is effective against the dermatophytes?
a. Zinc oxide
b. Tannic acid
c. Ketoconazole
d. Itraconazole
e. Eniloconazole
f. Coal tar
g. Selenium sulfide

c, d, e

Iodophors are used as
a. Anticoccidial agents
b. Emetic agents
c. Antiseptic agents
d. Chondroprotecive agents

c

Tocopherol is indicated in case of
a. Softening of the bone
b. Visual disturbance
c. Megaloblastic anaemia
d. Myodystrophy

d

Match the number of pharmacological group to the active substance and remember to write the correct number to each
a. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
b. Colistin
c. Atropine
d. Diaveridine
e. Doxycycline
f. Enrofloxacin
g. Acepromazine
h. Ketoprofen
i. Pimobendan
j. Procaine
1. potentiated sulphonamide agent
2. polypeptide antibiotic
3. fluoroquinolone of 2nd gen
4. fenothiazine neuroleptic
5. natural penicillin
6. local anaesthetic
7. vasodilator, anti-hypertensive agent
8. NSAID
9. parasympatholytic
10. tetracycline antibiotic

a5
b2
c9
d1
e10
f3
g4
h8
i7
j6

Chemical name of the drug
a. Is a precise description of chemical constitution & indicates the arrangement of atoms
b. Is selected by pharmaceutical company and is patent protected
c. Is a proprietary name which is shorter and more euphonious than the trade name
d. Is the most used name of drugs (by pharmacist and physicians)

a

Causal therapy is
a. Using the substances which the organism is not able to produce in sufficient amounts
b. Destroying the etiological agent causing disease (antibiotics against bacteria)
c. Treating the symptoms (fever, cough) using very low drug concentrations (subliminal doses) for treating diseases

b

Which of the following statements concerning Phase I metabolic reactions are correct?
a. Addition of a glucuronyl group is an example of a phase I reaction
b. A major source of phase i reactions is the cytochrome p450 enzyme system located in the liver smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. The products of phase i reactions are usually more lipid soluble than the parental drug

b

The process in which a substance is engulfed by the cell membrane & carried into the cell body.....newly formed vesicle inside the membrane is called
a. Lipid diffusion
b. Carrier-mediated transport
c. Exocytosis
d. Endocytosis

d

Definition of therapeutic index of a drug is
a. Ratio given by the effective dose divided by the toxic dose
b. Ratio given by the lethal dose divided by the therapeutic dose
c. Ratio given by the subliminal dose divided by the maximum therapeutic dose
d. Ratio given by the median therapeutic dose divided by the maximum therapeutic dose

b

Which of the following antimicrobials influence the permeability of cell membranes
a. Sulfonamides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Polyene antibiotics
d. Aminoglycosides

c

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are
a. Ampicillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin
b. Carbecillin, cloxacillin, dikloxacillin
c. Cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin

c

Streptomycin, neomycin & gentamycin belong to:
a. Macrolides
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Penicillins

b

Tetracyclines have the following unwanted effects
a. GIT abnormalities
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
d. All of the above

d

Tiamulin and valnemulin belong to
a. Ansamycins
b. Diterpene antibiotic
c. Extended-spectrum penicillins
d. Macrolides

b

Agents potentiating sulphonamides are
a. Trimethoprim, ormetoprim, diaveridine
b. Sulbactam, clavulanic acid
c. Paba, clavulanic acid
d. Paba, dihydrofolic acid

a

All of the agents are quinolones except for
a. Flumequine
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Difloxacin
d. Marbofloxacin
e. Ofloxacin
f. Cephalexin
g. Cephalotin
h. Orbifloxacin

f, g

Drug used for trichomoniasis treatment is
a. Metronidazole
b. Quinuronium
c. Levamisole
d. Tetracycline

a

For nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment is used
a. Pyrantel
b. Niclosamide
c. Praziquantel
d. Closantel

a, d

Praziquantel is effective against
a. Cestodes (tapeworms)
b. Fleas and lice
c. Trematodes
d. Nematodes

a, c

As the ectoparasiticides are used
a. Halofuginone, diclazuril, toltrazuril
b. Permethrin, cypermethrin, ivermectin
c. Niclozamide, bithionol, epsiprantel

b

Which of the following general anaesthetics belong to inhalants?
a. Thiopental
b. Desfluran
c. Ketamine
d. Propofol

b

As an ultra-short acting barbiturate used as IV anaesthesia is:
a. Fentanyl
b. Thiopental
c. Midazolam
d. Ketamine

b

Which of the following local anaesthetics is used for infiltrative and regional anaesthesia?
a. Procaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Ketamine
d. All of the above

a, b

Atropine is indicated
a. As an antidote in organophosphate poisoning
b. In premedication of anaesthesia
c. Spasmolytic agent
d. In heart arrhythmia
e. To treat glaucoma

a, b, c, d

Which of the following agent(s) is/are a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
a. Morphine
b. Buprenoophine
c. Naloxone
d. Butorphanol

c

Which of the following property combination is peculiar to the majority of NSAIDs?
a. Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic
b. Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
c. Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory
d. Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic

a, b, d

Ketoprofen & carprofen are
a. Antitussive drugs
b. Anti-inflammatory drugs
c. Fungicidal drugs
d. Chondroprotectives

b

Drugs with positive inotropic effect on heart is/are
a. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Cardiac glycosides
d. Catecholamines
e. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

c, d, e

An emetic drug of central action is
a. Geocaucania derivatives
b. Promeflazine
c. Acepromazine
d. Apomorphine hydrochloride

d

Aluminium silicate is used
a. As a sedative
b. As a treatment of heart arrhytmias
c. As an antacid
d. As an antiseptic

c, d

Which of the following agents are indicated for synchronisation of oestrus
a. Gonadorelin
b. Altrenogest
c. Melengestrol
d. Nandrolone

a, b, c

Deficiency of Fe causes
a. Anaemia
b. Hypogonadism
c. Increase of git peristatic
d. Osteopathies

a

Write the number of pharmacological group to the lettered active substance
a. Clindamycin
b. Doxycycline
c. Marbofloxacine
d. Nitronate
e. Narazine
f. Metomidate
g. Benazepril
h. Flunixin
i. Dexamethazone
j. Ergometrin
1. tetracycline antibiotic
2. anticoccidial
3. antihypertensive agent
4. sedative
5. fluoroquinolone antimicrobial
6. steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
7. lincosamide antibiotic
8. uterotonic
9. NSAID
10. antinematodal

a7
b1
c5
d10
e2
f4
g3
h9
i6
j8

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of
a. Mechanism of drug action
b. Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c. Distribution of drugs in the organism
d. Excretion of drug from the organism

a

Circle the answer which is the most appropriate to the term "receptor"
a. All types of ion channels modulated by a drug
b. Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c. Active macromolecular components of body tissue with which a drug interacts to elicit its specific effect.
d. Carriers activated by a drug

c

An antagonist is a substance that
a. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect.
b. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect
c. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn't produce any effect
d. Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions

d

What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is connected with processes of absorption, biotransformation, distribution and excretion?
a. Pharmacodynamic interaction
b. Physical and chemical interaction
c. Pharmaceutical interaction
d. Pharmacokinetic interaction

d

Match these classes of antimicrobial agents with either -static or-cidal group: aminoglycosides, ansamycins, lincosamides, Beta lactams, macrolides, fluoroquinolones, sulfanomides, tetracycline

bacteriostatic: tetracyclines, lincosamides, sulfonamides, macrolides
bactericidal: aminoglycosides, ansamycins, beta lactams, fluoroquinalones

Antibiotic inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis is:
a. Eythtromycin
b. Tylosin
c. Rifampin
d. Rifaximin
e. Doxycyclin
f. Doxacillin

c, d

The effect of lincosamides is:
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. In low doses bacteriostatic
d. In high doses bactericidal

a, d

Circle the drugs belonging to ansamycins
a. Rifampycine
b. Rifaxymine
c. Cindamycin
d. Lincomycin
e. Spiramycin
f. Spectinomycin

a, b

Sulfonamides have the following unwanted effects
a. Hematopoietic disturbances
b. Crystal urea
c. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
d. All of the above

d

Circle the drug belonging to quinolones
a. Tulathromycin
b. Oxacyline
c. Flumequine
d. Enrofloxacin
e. Orbifloxacin

c, d, e

Ionopores are effective against
a. Coccidia
b. Round worm
c. Tape worm
d. Flukes

a

Levamizole, netomidine, febantel are:
a. Antinematodal
b. Anti protozoan
c. Antitrematodal
d. Anticestodal

a