Urinalysis Practice Questions

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MLS 4510 Urinalysis

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119 Terms

1
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What do hydrogen ions primarily combine with to maintain buffering capacity of blood?

Filtered bicarbonate ions

2
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What are the primary substances removed from the blood by tubular secretion?

Protein-bound substances, hydrogen, potassium

3
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The glomerular filtrate is best described as:

Protein-free ultrafiltrate of plasma

4
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Production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is controlled by:

State of body hydration

5
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Total renal blood flow is approximately:

1200 mL/min

6
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Total renal plasma flow is approximately:

600 mL/min

7
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Which of the following comes first?

Afferent arteriole

8
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Where does aldosterone regulate sodium reabsorption?

Distal convoluted tubule

9
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What is the primary ion affected by RAAS?

Sodium

10
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Increased production of aldosterone causes:

Increased plasma sodium levels

11
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What is the specific gravity of the glomerular ultrafiltrate?

1.010

12
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Renin is produced by the kidney…

In response to low plasma sodium levels

13
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Water is passively reabsorbed in all parts of the nephron except:

Ascending loop of Henle

14
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The ideal urine sample volume is…

50 mL

15
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What is defined as low urine output?

Oliguria

16
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Which of the following is the ideal specimen when testing for a solute with diurnal variation?

24-hour specimen

17
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The specific gravity of someone with diabetes mellitus is usually:

High

18
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The specific gravity of someone with diabetes insipidus is usually:

Low

19
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Urine is defined as:

An ultra-filtrate of plasma continuously formed by the kidneys

20
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An unrefrigerated, unpreserved urine specimen should be tested within:

2 hours

21
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The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the principle for the reagent strip test of:

Blood

22
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Postrenal proteinuria may be caused by which of the following:

Prostatitis

23
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Urine osmolality is affected only by which of the following?

Number of particles present

24
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Which is the following compounds reacts with glucose to product the reagent strip result?

Glucose oxidase

25
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Refractive index compares:

Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

26
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The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to:

Albumin

27
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A student is having difficulty interpreting the reagent strip color reactions on a thick orange urine specimen. What is the probable cause?

Phenazopyridine

28
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What reagent strip pad is most strongly associated with renal disease?

Protein

29
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Urobilinogen is formed from:

Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria

30
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Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguished from specimens that contain just hemoglobin or myoglobin because:

Intact RBCs produce a cloudy specimen

31
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A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates the patient should be:

Asked to collect a new specimen

32
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A clinically significant cause of turbid specimens is:

Lipids

33
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Which of the following will be detected by the reagent strip nitrite reaction?

E. coli

34
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The chemical principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is that bilirubin:

Combines with a diazonium salt to form a colored complex

35
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A urine specimen that tests positive for ketones and negative for glucose in most indicative of:

Starvation

36
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A positive Clinitest with a yellow precipitate is noted from a patient with liver and cardiac abnormalities. What should the MLS do next?

Check the patient’s urine for color change

37
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Increased turbidity in urine stored at room temperature is usually caused by:

Bacterial growth

38
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Bacterial decomposition of urea produces urine that has an odor resembling:

Ammonia

39
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Infection of the bladder is termed:

Cystitis

40
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Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms?

Calcium oxalate

41
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Clue cells are derived from:

Squamous epithelial cells

42
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Under polarized light, all of the following will exhibit the Maltese cross formation except:

Pollen grains

43
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Which of the following casts is not associated with severe urinary stasis?

Hyaline

44
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Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer-Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:

Glitter cells

45
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Lithotripsy is a procedure that is performed to:

Aid in the removal of renal calculi

46
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Glomerular basement membrane thickening occurs in membranous glomerulonephritis as a result of deposition of:

IgG immune complexes

47
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Calcium carbonate crystals can be distinguished from bacteria by:

Adding acetic acid

48
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Oval fat bodies are:

Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids

49
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The presence of argentaffin cell tumors can be detected by the presence in the urine of:

5-HIAA

50
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The finding of increased amounts of the serotonin degradation product 5-HIAA in the urine indicates:

Argentaffin cell tumors

51
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The acid-albumin CTAB test is used to test for:

Mucopolysaccharides

52
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In a fully automated analyzer, clarity is measured by:

Light scatter

53
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The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the:

RBC cast

54
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The silver nitroprusside test detects the presence of:

Homocysteine

55
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What part of the kidney is uromodulin produced?

Proximal and distal convoluted tubules

56
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What causes a patient with a vegetarian diet to have false-positive readings for blood on routine urine specimens?

Vegetable peroxidase

57
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The pronounced edema associated with nephrotic syndrome is related to which of the following?

Hypoalbuminemia

58
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Which of the following clearance substances does not require urine collection?

Cystatin C

59
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What testing principle do semi-automated analyzers for the chemical urinalysis use?

Reflectance photometry

60
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Which of the following results is unusual for a urine specimen from an uncontrolled diabetic?

High pH

61
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What do the following results suggest?

Color & clarity: Yellow, cloudy

1.020 SG and 8.0 pH

Negative for glucose, ketones, bilirubin, blood

Trace proteins

Positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite

Urinary tract infection

62
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To provide an accurate measure of renal blood flow, a test substance should be:

Cleared on contact with functional renal tissues

63
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Myoglobinuria may be caused by what condition?

“Crush” injuries

64
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A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have:

Renal calculi

65
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Which of the following is not an organic acidemia?

5-HIAA

66
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Which of the following is not a porphyrin?

Porphobilinogen

67
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Positive copper reduction test and negative glucose oxidase reagent strip test is suggestive of what?

Carbohydrate metabolism disorder

68
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The presence of porphobilinogen in the urine can be suspected when:

Acidic urine turns a port wine color after standing

69
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Urine with the characteristic odor of "sweaty feet" and a positive ketone test indicates the presence of:

Isovaleric acid

70
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A urinalysis and a dinitrophenylhydrazine (DNPH) test are performed on an infant who is failing to thrive. If the DNPH test is positive, what result in the urinalysis will also be positive?

Ketones

71
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An employee reports a negative nitroso-napthol test on a suspected case of tyrosyluria. What action should be taken next?

Collection of a blood sample for MS/MS testing.

72
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What is the appropriate screening test for PKU?

Ferric chloride

73
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Indigo blue in the urine can be indicative of a defect in the metabolism of:

Tryptophan

74
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To differentiate between cystinuria and homocystinuria, the urine should be tested with:

Silver nitroprusside

75
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Which disorder has a positive antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody test and is associated with pulmonary hemoptysis and urinary hematuria?

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s)

76
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Which condition would a patient not present with when diagnosed with Lesch-Nyhan disease?

Cystinosis

77
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To enhance the excretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia is produced by the cells of the:

Distal convoluted tubule

78
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What crystal is described as having a “coffin lid” appearance?

Triple phosphate crystals

79
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What crystal is described as having a “thorny apple” appearance?

Ammonium biurate

80
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What crystal comes in two forms?

Calcium oxalate

81
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What crystal is associated with ethylene glycol poisoning?

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

82
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What will distinguish the calcium phosphate versus sulfonamide crystals?

Addition of acetic acid

83
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Cysteine crystals must be confirmed with what?

Cyanide-nitroprusside test

84
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Which of the following is not a form uric acid can be found in?

Needle

85
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Which statement regarding renal function is true?

Glomeruli are far more permeable to water and salt than other capillaries.

86
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Which statement regarding normal salt and H2O handling by the nephron is correct?

The ascending limb of the tubule is highly permeable to salt but not water.

87
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Which statement concerning renal tubular function is true?

In salt deprivation, the kidneys will conserve sodium at the expense of potassium.

88
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Which urine color is correlated correctly with the pigment-producing substance?

Deep yellow with yellow foam & bilirubin

89
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A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:

Melanin

90
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91
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Which of the following is least affected by standing or improperly stored urine?

Protein

92
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Urine production of less than 400 mL/day is:

Oliguria

93
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Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?

Protein

94
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Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates:

Diabetes insipidus

95
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In which of the following conditions is the urine SG likely to be below 1.025?

Chronic renal failure

96
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What is the principle of the colorimetric reagent strip determination of SG in urine?

Ionic strength and pKa of a polyelectrolyte

97
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Which statement regarding urine pH is true?

Contamination should be suspected if urine pH is less than 4.5.

98
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In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

Consistently alkaline

99
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In which of the following conditions is glycosuria most likely?

Pregnancy

100
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Which of the following results are discrepant?

Negative blood but 6–10 RBCs/HPF