Anatomy Exam 3 SDSU Possible Short Answer or MC Questions

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Last updated 6:58 AM on 3/24/26
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83 Terms

1
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Which muscle tendon is located within the intertubercular groove?

Bicep brachii muscle

2
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Shoulder separation is usually due to a downward force over the __________ and can tear ____________ ligaments.

acromion process; acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular

3
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What bone and landmark attaches to the glenoid cavity of the scapula?

Head of the humerus

4
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What joint attaches the pectoral girdle and the upper limbs to the axial skeleton?

Acromioclavicular joint

5
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The loose ________ and shallow _________ of the glenohumeral joint allow for flexibility but increase risk for dislocation.

articular capsule; glenoid cavity

6
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What is the fibrocartilage meniscus that somewhat deepens the socket for glenohumeral reinforcement?

Glenoid Labrum

7
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What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and Subscapularis

8
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The Pectoral girdle has _________, but lacks____________.

flexibility; stability

9
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The Pectoral girdle only has __________ attachment to the axial skeleton.

anterior

10
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The growth of the clavicle at is complete at ________ years.

25-31

11
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What bone is most likely to break in children?

clavicle

12
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The right clavicle is usually _________ and __________ than the left.

shorter; thicker

13
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What region of the humerus is most likely to break: the anatomical neck or the surgical neck?

The surgical neck

14
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Which two landmarks compose the condyle of the humerus?

Capitulum and trochlea

15
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What is the name of the connective tissue membrane between the radius and the ulna?

Interosseous membrane

16
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Which landmark (and bone) fits into the olecranon fossa of the humerus?

The olecranon process of the ulna

17
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Which landmark (and bone) fits into the radial notch of the ulna?

The head of the radius

18
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The annular ligament holds what together?

The radial head against the capitulum of the humerus

19
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What happens in radial head dislocation?

The radial head slips out of the annular ligament and slides away from the radial notch of ulna and capitulum of humerus

20
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The fingernails cover over which specific phalanx of your index finger? (Give name and number)

Distal phalange #2

21
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Which scapular landmark does not articulate with a bone: the acromion process or the coracoid process?

Coracoid process

22
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What ligament attaches the acetabulum to the fovea capitis of the femur?

Ligamentum teres

23
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Fusion of the coxal bone happens by ____ years.

25

24
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Which region of the femur is known to have a thin periosteum and a thin compact bone layer and, as a result, it is vulnerable to breaking as we age?

Neck of the femur

25
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Dislocation of the femur can cause what to tear?

Ligamentum teres, ischiofemoral ligament, and the posterior capsule

26
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Which ligament extends from the A.S.I.S. to the pubic tubercle of the coxal bone?

Inguinal ligament

27
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The pelvic brim is a continuous circular region from ___________________________________________________________________.

the sacral promontory, around arcuate line to pubic crest forming the pelvic inlet

28
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The greater pelvis is the ___________ pelvis and ____________ to the pelvic brim (opposite of the lesser pelvis).

false; superior

29
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Is a male or female pelvis overall more tall and narrow with a pubic arch less than 90 degrees and a coccyx that points anterior?

Male pelvis

30
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Which region of the articular surface of the talus is wider: anterior or posterior?

anterior

31
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The head of the femur articulates with the __________ of the coxal bone.

acetabulum

32
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Which tarsal bone forms the heel of the foot?

Calcaneous

33
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What type of ankle joint injury is more common and what can be torn?

Inversion; lateral ligaments (Ant/Post talofibular ligament and calcaneofibular ligament)

34
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Does the fibula articulate with the femur?

no

35
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What is the largest bone in the body?

Femur

36
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The patella is located within which tendon?

Patellar tendon

37
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A lateral blow to the knee can cause tearing of what?

Medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament

38
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What type of joint is the Sternoclavicular joint?

Synovial (gliding); nonaxial

39
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What type of joint is the Acromioclavicular joint?

Synovial (gliding); nonaxial

40
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What type of joint is the Glenohumeral joint?

Synovial (ball and socket); triaxial

41
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What type of joint is the Humero-ulnar joint?

Synovial (hinge); uniaxial

42
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What type of joint is the Radioulnar joint (proximal/distal)?

Synovial (pivot); uniaxial

43
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What type of joint is the Radioulnar joint (medial) Interosseous membrane?

Syndesmosis; amphiarthrosis

44
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What type of joint is the Carpo-metacarpal (thumb) joint (proximal/distal)?

Synovial (saddle); biaxial

45
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What type of joint is the Sacroiliac joint?

Synovial (gliding); nonaxial

46
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What type of joint is the Coxofemoral joint?

Synovial (ball and socket); triaxial

47
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What type of joint is the Tibiofemoral joint?

Synovial (hinge); uniaxial

48
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What type of joint is the Tibiofibular (medial) Interosseous membrane?

Syndesmosis; amphiarthrosis

49
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What type of joint is the Tibiotalar joint?

Synovial (hinge); uniaxial

50
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What three muscles originate from the ischial tuberosity, and what is a common name for the three muscles?

Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus, and Semimembranosus

(Hamstrings)

51
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Which muscles make up the quadriceps muscle group?

Rectus femoris, Vastus lateralis, Vastus medialis, Vastus intermedialis

52
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Which two muscles are best seen at the back wall of the abdominopelvic cavity?

Psoas major and Iliacus

53
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Which two muscles share the calcaneal tendon?

Gastrocnemius and Soleus

54
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Trace a drop of blood from the right posterior tibial vein, through the heart, to the left axillary artery.

Right posterior tibial vein > right popliteal vein > right femoral vein > right external iliac vein > right common iliac > inferior vena cava > right atrium > right AV valve > right ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary arteries > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium > left AV valve > left ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aorta > left subclavian artery > left axillary artery

55
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Trace a drop of blood from the radial vein, through the heart, to the femoral artery.

Radial vein > brachial vein > axillary vein > subclavian vein > brachiocephalic vein > superior vena cava > right atrium > right AV valve > right ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary artery > lungs > pulmonary vein > left atrium > left AV valve > left ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aorta > thoracic aorta > abdominal aorta > common iliac artery > external iliac artery > femoral artery

56
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Trace a drop of fetal blood from the placenta, through the heart and body, back to the placenta, BYPASSING the right ventricle and lungs.

Placenta > umbilical vein > liver > IVC > right atrium > foramen ovale > left atrium > left AV valve > left ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aorta > body > umbilical artery > placenta

57
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Trace a drop of fetal blood from the placenta, through the heart and body, back to the placenta, BYPASSING the left side of the heart and lungs.

Placenta > umbilical vein > liver > IVC > right atrium > right AV valve > right ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary artery > ductus arteriosus > aorta > body > umbilical artery > placenta

58
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What ECG wave corresponds to the Atria in systole?

"P" wave

59
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What valves are open when the Atria in diastole?

pulmonary and aortic

60
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Which chambers are contracting when the pulmonary and aortic valves are open?

ventricles

61
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The heart begins pumping around ___ weeks of development.

3

62
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Plasma is made up of ___% water and ___% dissolved substances.

92; 8

63
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What are the plasma proteins called and where are they primarily formed?

Albumin. Globulin, and Fibrinogen; liver

64
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What is the name of blood cell formation and then name of a blood stem cell?

hemopoiesis; hemocytoblast

65
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What type of blood cell is most abundant, with no nucleus or mitochondria, and cannot pass through vessel walls?

erythrocytes

66
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Do leukocytes or erythrocytes have a shorter life span?

leukocytes

67
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What type of WBC is most abundant and fights bacterial infection?

neutrophils

68
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Eosinophils release chemicals to reduce ___________, and fight ___________ infection.

inflammation; parasitic

69
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Which WBC does not use phagocytosis and has an allergic response?

basophils

70
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Which WBC is largest and becomes a type of macrophage?

monocytes

71
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Lymphocytes are an __________ cell that fight ___________ infection.

immune; viral

72
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What works together to form blood clots?

Thrombocytes (platelets) and fibrinogens

73
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The heart beats from ___ liters/min resting to ___ liters/min exercising.

5; 30

74
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The location of the heart is _________________________________________.

in the mediastinum within the pericardial cavity, lying on top of the diaphragm

75
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What is the fibrous skeleton of the heart found in?

myocardium

76
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Adjacent cells are joined by _____________________ that have shared Z-lines.

intercalated discs

77
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What are the pacemaker cells and where are they found?

SA node and AV node; right atrium

78
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What causes a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

Death of heart tissue due to an insufficient blood supply

79
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Approximately ___% of blood is circulating through the pulmonary circuit while ___% is circulating through the systemic circuit.

9; 84

80
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The tunica interna is made of ___________, tunica media of _________, and tunica externa of ____________.

endothelial layer and basal lamina; smooth muscle; connective tissue

81
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What are the types of arteries?

elastic and muscular

82
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Arterioles have the same but _______ tunics as arteries and are important for directing blood towards or away from ________.

thinner; organs

83
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What are responsible for the movement of blood through veins?

one-way valves, muscular contractions, and breathing

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