Antibacterial & Antimycobacterial Therapy – Lecture Review

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A comprehensive set of question-and-answer flashcards covering key concepts, drug prototypes, mechanisms, adverse effects, nursing considerations, laboratory monitoring, and patient teaching points from the antibacterial and antimycobacterial lecture.

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46 Terms

1
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What is the difference between a bactericidal and a bacteriostatic drug?

Bactericidal drugs kill bacteria directly (e.g., lyse the cell wall); bacteriostatic drugs inhibit growth so the immune system can eliminate the organism.

2
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Name four major ways antibacterials work against microbes.

1) Inhibit cell-wall synthesis 2) Inhibit DNA replication/cell division 3) Inhibit folic-acid synthesis 4) Disrupt protein synthesis or other essential processes.

3
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How do narrow-spectrum and broad-spectrum antibiotics differ?

Narrow-spectrum agents act against a limited group of organisms; broad-spectrum agents treat a wide variety of organisms.

4
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Why must a culture & sensitivity (C&S) be obtained before starting antibiotics?

To identify the organism and determine which drugs it is sensitive or resistant to, ensuring appropriate therapy.

5
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List three key strategies for preventing antibiotic resistance.

1) Use antibiotics only for pathogens known to be sensitive 2) Give adequate dose & full duration 3) Avoid indiscriminate/viral use.

6
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Define a superinfection.

A new infection that appears during or after treatment of the original infection—often due to disruption of normal flora.

7
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Which fungal infection commonly occurs as a superinfection and how is oral thrush treated?

Candidiasis (thrush); treated with nystatin "swish & swallow".

8
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What hallmark symptom helps nurses recognize C. difficile infection?

Profuse, foul-smelling watery diarrhea (often unforgettable odor).

9
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During anaphylaxis, which nursing priority comes first?

Establish/maintain airway and provide oxygen.

10
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Which labs are routinely checked for kidney function when patients receive nephrotoxic antibiotics?

BUN and creatinine.

11
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Name three primary liver-function tests a nurse may monitor with hepatotoxic drugs.

AST (and often ALT), albumin, bilirubin.

12
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Which coagulation tests are reviewed when an antibiotic increases bleeding risk?

Platelet count, PT/INR, and PTT.

13
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What is the prototype penicillin and one common indication?

Amoxicillin; used for ear, throat, or urinary infections.

14
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Which teaching is essential concerning penicillins and oral contraceptives?

Penicillins can decrease contraceptive efficacy—use backup birth control.

15
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What cephalosporin prototype can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol?

Cephalexin (and other cephalosporins).

16
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Why should cephalosporins be infused slowly IV?

Fast infusion can cause thrombophlebitis; slow infusion reduces vein irritation.

17
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Why must nurses ask about penicillin allergy before giving a cephalosporin?

Because of possible cross-sensitivity; many penicillin-allergic patients also react to cephalosporins.

18
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Name the monobactam prototype and a key IV consideration.

Aztreonam; it is incompatible with many drugs—use a separate IV line and infuse slowly.

19
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Carbapenems (e.g., imipenem-cilastatin) are administered by which routes?

IM or IV only (not absorbed orally).

20
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Which drug is first-line for MRSA and oral therapy for C. diff?

Vancomycin (IV for MRSA; PO for C. difficile).

21
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What is Red-Man Syndrome and how is it prevented?

Flushing, rash, hypotension from rapid vancomycin infusion; prevent by diluting and infusing over ≥60 minutes.

22
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Which serum levels are checked with vancomycin therapy?

Peak and trough levels (especially trough before next dose).

23
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Why are tetracyclines contraindicated in children under 8 and pregnant women?

They discolor teeth and inhibit bone growth in developing children/fetuses.

24
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What sun-related precaution must patients take with tetracyclines?

Use sunscreen/protective clothing due to photosensitivity.

25
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Which serious cardiac effect can erythromycin (a macrolide) produce?

Prolonged QT interval leading to ventricular dysrhythmias.

26
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List two key toxicities to monitor with gentamicin.

Ototoxicity (hearing loss, tinnitus) and nephrotoxicity (elevated BUN/creatinine, low urine output).

27
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Why is gentamicin not given orally?

It is not absorbed from the GI tract; given IV, IM, topical, ophthalmic, or intrathecal.

28
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When are gentamicin peak and trough levels drawn?

Peak: ~30 minutes after infusion ends; Trough: 1 hour before next dose.

29
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Which fluoroquinolone may rupture the Achilles tendon, especially in adults over 60?

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro).

30
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Name two teaching points to reduce ciprofloxacin side-effects.

1) Limit caffeine to reduce CNS symptoms 2) Avoid sun exposure; use sunscreen for photosensitivity.

31
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Which life-threatening skin reaction is associated with TMP-SMX (a sulfonamide)?

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome.

32
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Why must patients on TMP-SMX drink plenty of water?

To prevent renal crystalluria and damage—encourage 1.5–2 L/day fluid intake.

33
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Which UTI-specific drug darkens urine and should not be opened or crushed?

Nitrofurantoin.

34
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What are two major adverse effects of isoniazid (INH) for TB?

Hepatotoxicity and peripheral neuropathy.

35
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How do rifampin’s harmless body-fluid changes appear and what eye-wear advice is given?

Turns urine, sweat, saliva, tears red-orange; may stain contact lenses—consider daily disposables.

36
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Which two TB drugs can reduce effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

Rifampin and isoniazid (backup birth control advised).

37
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Which infusion rate prevents Red-Man Syndrome with vancomycin?

At least 60 minutes (or longer) per dose.

38
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What symptoms indicate a disulfiram-like reaction with cephalosporins and alcohol?

Flushing, severe nausea/vomiting, chest pain, hypotension, palpitations—patient feels very ill.

39
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When measuring antibiotic levels, why is the trough most critical for vancomycin?

High troughs predict toxicity; ensure level is low enough before next dose is given.

40
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List the drug classes that inhibit cell-wall synthesis.

Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, carbapenems, and vancomycin.

41
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Which drug class inhibits bacterial DNA replication?

Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin).

42
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Which two antibiotic classes inhibit folic-acid synthesis?

Sulfonamides (TMP-SMX) and urinary antiseptic nitrofurantoin.

43
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Name two antibiotic classes commonly causing photosensitivity.

Tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin).

44
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What should a nurse suspect if a patient develops watery/bloody diarrhea while on antibiotics?

Possible C. difficile infection—notify provider and consider stopping the drug.

45
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What general contraception advice is given with many antibiotics?

Use an additional non-hormonal method because antibiotics may lower oral contraceptive efficacy.

46
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How can probiotics help during certain antibiotic courses?

They restore normal GI flora and reduce risk of C. difficile and other superinfections.