What is the most likely diagnosis for a 60-year-old woman with a large complex ovarian mass and ascites who has primary adenocarcinoma of the stomach?
D) Krukenberg's tumor
What is the crowning circumference in brow presentation?
C) 35.3 cm
Which of the following does not cause fetal malformation?
D) HIV
Where are clue cells seen?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
What is the minimum normal sperm count?
B) 15 million/ml
What causes the rise in body temperature after ovulation?
D) Progesterone
Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor for endometrial carcinoma?
D) Early menopause
What does menorrhagia mean?
A) Excessive bleeding during menstruation
What is the MOST likely diagnosis for a patient with vulvar irritation, odorless white curdy discharge, and a pH of 4.0?
C) Candidiasis
What medication should be prescribed for gonorrhea diagnosed at 6 weeks' gestation?
A) Ceftriaxone
Which structure produces gonadotropins?
B) Anterior pituitary
What is the most appropriate initial management for a morbidly obese woman with irregular periods?
A) Oral contraceptives
What common sign is recognized with cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge?
D) Candida albicans infections
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Use of a diaphragm for contraception
What is the MOST likely etiology for right upper quadrant pain in a patient with PID?
C) Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome
Which non-malignant adnexal mass is derived from all three germ cell layers?
E) Mature cystic teratoma
What antibiotic would be part of the treatment plan for a patient with motile flagellated organisms?
B) Metronidazole
Which of the following infections is sexually transmitted?
E) All of the above
During which trimester are congenital syndromes related to viral infections most likely to occur?
A) In the first trimester
Which obstetric emergency is associated with the highest maternal mortality rate?
C) postpartum haemorrhage
Which method of inducing labor is absolutely contraindicated for a patient with a previous cesarean section?
D) Vaginal administration of prostaglandin E2
Explanation:This patient has a history of a prior cesarean delivery and is undergoing an elective induction of labor at term. Certain methods of induction are contraindicated in this setting due to the increased risk of uterine rupture, which is a serious complication in patients with a uterine scar.
Vaginal administration of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) is absolutely contraindicated in women with a prior uterine scar Prostaglandins significantly increase uterine contractility, which can overstress the uterine scar and lead to rupture.
What non-reassuring fetal heart rate monitoring pattern includes minimal or absent variability?
E) A + C
Which statement regarding cesarean section delivery is TRUE?
A) Maternal morbidity is significantly increased with cesarean compared with vaginal delivery.
What is the BEST treatment for a positive cervical biopsy of invasive squamous carcinoma?
B) Radical hysterectomy with lymphadenectomy
What is the MOST appropriate treatment option for a patient with a borderline tumor?
E) Observation
What is the current most cost-effective method of screening for ovarian cancer?
B) Serum CA-125 tests
Which of the following is true regarding malpresentation?
B) Occipito-transverse (OT) position may be normal in the first stage of labor.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of fetal damage/death in labor?
E) Fetal volume overload
What is true about Caesarean section delivery?
E) Absolute indications for caesarean include breech presentation, twin pregnancy, and previous caesarean.
What is the most common site of gonococcus infection in females?
A) Cervix