orthopedics kahoot

Acetabular Fractures

A) caused usually from severe trauma

B) may be initially treated with skeletal traction

C)Fixation may be delayed until patient stable

D) all answers are correct

D

Acetabular Fractures

A) are done lateral on regular OR table

B) are done supine on regular OR table

C) are done lateral on a fracture table

A

Acetabular fractures are fixed with wire mesh, plates and screws

Yes or No

Yes

Acetabular fractures

A) may require a bone graft

B) may require a cell saver during surgical procedures

C) if bone is needed may use a femoral head allograft

D)all answers are correct

D

Hip fractures are

femoral neck, subtrochanteric and intertrochanteric

hip fractures may be fixed

A) fixed with plate and screws

B) fixed with TFN

C) fixed with IM rods or nails

D) all answers are correct

D

Hip fractures are fixed ASAP, to prevent avascular necrosis

true or false

true

avascular necrosis is a

A) risk of femoral shaft fractures

B) never a concern with femoral neck fractures

C) risk with a femoral neck fracture

D) all answers are correct

C

Austin Moore Prosthesis-Unipolar prosthesis

A) used with femoral neck fracture for patients with limited mobility

B) is modular for patients with limited mobility

C) best for active person with femoral neck fracture

A

Subtrochanteric fracture may be fixed with IM rod or nail

true or false

true

skin breakdown, pneumonia, DVT and avascular necrosis are complications of

A) delayed fixation

B) hip fracture

C) immobility

D) all answers are correct

D

tamponade pressure

A) is caused by intracapsular blood

B) is a complication of hip fractures

C) contributes to avascular necrosis

D) all answers are correct

D

Muscle spasms from hip fractures may be treated with

bucks traction

with a bipolar hip replacement

A) only femur is reamed

B) the most cost effective treatment for femoral neck fracture is utilized

C) the acetabulum and femoral head are replaced

A

the best choice for fracture management of a femoral shaft fracture is

IM rod- increases load sharing

IM nail steps are

A) guide pins, ream canal, rod placement, screw placement

B) guide pin, ream canal, screw placement, rod placement

C) ream canal, guide pin, rod placement, screw placement

A

repair of patella fracture may be accomplished with mesh plates and screws

true or false

true

patellectomy will not decrease the power and function of the knee

true or false

false

popliteal cyst is

A) a bakers cyst and may return after surgical removal

B) repaired in prone position

C) a cyst that develops with other joint disease

D) all answers are correct

D

Tibial fractures heal quickly, tibia has good blood supply and great deal protective tissue

true or false

false

treatment of choice for tibial shaft fracture is

IM rod

prone is surgical position for a tibial fracture repair

true or false

false

with all fracture management

A) presence of gross contamination increases infection risk

B) removal of visible contamination essential before fixation

C) compromised of sterile technique may cause serious bone infection

D) all answers are correct

D

ankle fractures include the following bones

medial, lateral and posterior malleolus

achilles tendon tears are complete or partial and

A) weakened athletes are most at risk

B) may be repaired with #5 Ticron or Ethibond sutures

C) should be repaired ASAP before tendon atrophies

D) all answers are correct

D

Triple arthrodesis includes what bones of the ankle

talocalcaneal, talonavicular and calcaneocuboid

triple arthrodesis utilized staplers, pins and screws to achieve fixation

true or false

true

limb and digit reattachments

require multiple set ups

the first procedure step in limb/digit reattachment is remove foreign matter and damaged tissue

true or false

true

which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain blood levels

calcium

long bone, largest in the human body

femur

which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel

calcaneus

what is a serious bone infection called

osteomyelitis

what is the hard dense bone of diaphysis

cortical

where is the area of active bone growth

epiphyseal plate

what is teh name of the non pathological small sac that contains synovial fluid

bursa

what type of bone is the patella

sesamoid or round

what is the medical term for spongy bone

cancellous

what is eh outside covering of bones that provides nourishment and protection

periosteum

carpal and tarsal bones are classified as what

short

red bone marrow that produces red blood cells in adults in mainly found in which type of bones

flat bones

the elbow is what type of joint

diarthrosis

the skull is what type of joint

syntharosis

which joint is an example of a ball and socket

A) atlantoaxial

B) patellofemoral

C) femoroacetabular

D) temporomandibular

C

Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium

parathyroid

in which joint would a bucket handle tear be found

knee

which condition is known as “bowlegged”

valgus or varus

varus

which of the following means partial separation and dislocation of a joint

subluxation

what is the most common cause of bone fracture

trauma

which type of fracture is characterized as partial and often occurs in children

greenstick

which term mean smoving a body part away from the midline

abduction

what pathology is an autoimmune response that attacks the joints

rheumatoid arthritis

what is the term for a bony prominence projecting- example a bunion

exostosis

what is the term for the softening of bone in children commonly called rickets

osteomalacia

chondroma, giant cells, adn osteoma are

benign neoplasms

how many stages are involved in normal osteogensis

5

what is the acute, emergent condition of compression of neural & vascular structures following trauma

compartmental syndrome

the term C-arm refers to

fluoroscopic machine

What is the type of cast that is applied often to children & immobilizes hips & femurs

spica

which of the following does not use ionizing radiation

A) arthrography

B) CT scan

C) bone scan

D) MRI scan

D

which ortho instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle claw

lowman bone holder

which device is sometimes used for achieving & monitoring lateral position

bean bag

what may be used for femoral nailing procedures

fracture table

what is achieved in the limb by wrapping an esmarch bandage around the elevated limb prior to inflation of tourniquet

exsanguination

which component is specifically for arthroscopy and not laparoscopy

powered shaver

which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implants

FDA

what is PMMA used for in an orthopedic procedure

bone cement

which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone

clavicle

which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion

A) acromioclavicular

B) glenohumeral

C) coracoclavicular

D) sternoclavicular

B

longest bone in the upper extremity

humerus

name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment for muscles or tendons

tubercle

which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthoscope

A) camera head

B) light cord

C) inflow/outflow tubing

D) power shaver

D

what instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine & manipulate internal structures

blunt probe

what should the ST do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw

drip small amounts of saline

all of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty except

A) chronic arthritis pain

B) osteonecrosis of humeral head

C) glenohumeral joint fracture

D) moderate impingement syndrome

D

which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones

intramedullary reamer

which bone is involved in a colles fracture

radius

what is a common surgical approach for colles fracture

external fixation

which of the following is not a bone in the pelvis

A) ilium

B) femur

C) pubis

D) ischium

B

what is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint

acetabulum

which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum

head

what additional PPE is worn during a total joint procedure

space suit

what tissue does the acetabular reamer remove

cartilage and bone

what should the ST have ready to remove bone from a rongeur

lap sponges

cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by

guide pin

what is the purpose of the medial & lateral menisci of the knee

cushioning

which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone

tibia

patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of

autografts for ACL repair

liston knife, gigli saw, and oscillating saw are examples of instruments for what

above the knee amputation

which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body

achilles

the broken ends of a fractured bone are forced into one another

impacted

the ends of a long bone are called

epiphysis

implantable devices made of different alloys can cause the metal to breakdown

true or false

true

double gloving should be done as routine in orthopedics cases due to exposure to sharps

true or false

true

compartment syndrome is a surgical emergency due to neurovascular compromise

true or false

true

a nonunion of a bone is when a fracture does not show evidence of healing

true or false

true

when placing a cast on patient, hot water should always be used when dipping plaster

true or false

false