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What is the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) of 1967?
To establish minimal quality requirements for clinical laboratories engaged in crossing state lines
What amendments made all labs required to have a certificate from the department of health and human services and are required to have quality control protocols
Clinical Laboratory improvement amendments of 1988 (CLIA)
What does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
OSHA published guidance to make labs Sade for personnel called:
OSHA laboratory safety guidance
What is the primary goal of OSHA?
To ensure safe and healthful working conditions for workers.
What are ways of dealing with hazards according to OSHA?
fume hoods, SOPs for handling chemicals, no mouth pipetting, protective gear, hygiene plans, blood born pathogen and needle stick injury
What year was HIPAA enacted?
1996.
What does HIPAA regulate?
How personally identifiable information must be handled by healthcare entities.
As of April 5 2021 the rule on interoperability information blocking and ONC Health IT certification gives patients what?
access without charge to all healthcare records
What is the significance of the 20th century in laboratory medicine?
Development of microbiology accidentally, clinical chemistry, and detection of serum tumor markers and quantitative analysis methods, and transfusion medicine through blood group classification.
What are the normal fasting glucose levels for adults?
70-99 mg/dL.
What is the normal range for sodium in adults?
136 - 145 mEq/L.
What is the normal range for potassium in adults?
3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L.
What is the normal range for chloride in adults?
95 - 105 mEq/L.
What is the normal BUN level in adults?
7-18 mg/dL.
What is the normal creatinine range for adults?
0.6 - 1.2 mg/dL.
What is the normal white blood cell (WBC) count for adults?
4.5 - 11 x 10^9/L.
What are the normal hemoglobin levels for adults?
12 - 16 g/dL (female) / 13.5 - 17.5 g/dL (male)
What is the normal hematocrit range for adult females?
36% - 46%.
What is the normal hematocrit range for adult males?
41% - 53%.
What is the normal platelet count for adults?
150 - 400 x 10^9/L.
When did Hippocrates advocate a diagnostic protocol that included testing the patients urine?
5-4 BC
What century was the microscope invented in?
17th
What century was the discovery of the cause of coagulation?
18th
What century were WBCs identified?
19th
What was the role of the American College of Surgeons in laboratory medicine?
Conducted the first inspections of hospitals in 1918.
What act established the minimal quality requirements for clinical laboratories engaged in interstate commerce to participate in medicare
clinical laboratory improvement act of 1967
What group has the responsibility for implementing the CLIA program
the division of laboratory services within the survey and certification group
lab tests are compared to a set range before a provider can interpret
reference range
range of dosage of a therapeutic agent or it'd plasma/serum concentration where it is expected to achieve
therapeutic range
the trueness of a test
accuracy
reproducibility of a rest
precision
What are the 2 important factors regarding accuracy of a test?
sensitivity and specificity
ability of a test to correctly detect individuals who have disease
the positive rate sensitivity
ability of a test to identify people without the disease/condition
true negative specificity rate
What is the purpose of varied blood collection tubes?
To ensure proper specimen collection and preservation for accurate laboratory testing.
What must employers report to OSHA as of January 1, 2015?
All work-related fatalities within 8 hours and all work-related inpatient hospitalizations, amputations, and losses of an eye within 24 hours.
Establishes national standards for the protection of health information and individuals' privacy rights.
HIPAA
What was a significant issue with labs reading PAP smears in the late 60s?
They had a high error rate due to being overworked and understaffed.
What does the term 'false-positive' refer to in laboratory testing?
A test result indicating a condition is present when it is not.
What does the term 'false-negative' refer to in laboratory testing?
A test result indicating a condition is not present when it actually is.
What is the maximum extension allowed for interpreting a test under HIPAA?
One extension of 30 days, with written reason and expected date for providing access.
Can providers disclose reports without patient authorization?
Yes, if it is for treatment purposes, including consulting with other providers.
What are reasonable safeguards in communication of patient information?
Methods like confirming fax numbers, using cover sheets, and lowering voice in proximity to others.
What does the term 'reference range' refer to?
A set of values into which 95% of the healthy population falls, used for interpreting lab tests.
Differentiate between prevalence and incidence.
Prevalence is the proportion of people who have a condition during a time period; incidence is the proportion of new cases that occur during that time.
Medical testing at or near the site of patient care, providing results usually within 1-3 days.
point of care testing
What is lab collection used for?
confirm disease, rule out, monitor, prognostic, screen
Out patient clinics with results in 1-3 days
routine tests
urgent care facility with results within 60-120 minutes
priority tests
emergency department with results in 30-60 minutes
STAT tests
What is the average blood volume in an adult?
Approximately 10 pints (units) of blood.
The liquid portion of anticoagulated whole blood, containing clotting factors.
plasma
The liquid portion of clotted blood samples, lacking most clotting factors.
serum
The volume percentage of red blood cells (RBC) in blood.
hematocrit
An iron-containing oxygen-transport protein in red blood cells.
hemoglobin
They create a vacuum seal to facilitate drawing of blood and contain additives to stabilize or preserve samples.
vacutainers
no additives is what color tube?
Red (serum)
serum separating gel useful for chemistry, serology, and endocrine
Gold/marble top
What does a light blue vacutainer contain?
Sodium citrate, used for coagulation studies (PT, PTT, TT).
What does a green vacutainer contain?
heparin (anticoagulation)
What does the grey vacutainer contain?
sodium fluoride inhibit glycolysis, potassium oxalate, used for glucose, lactate, blood alcohol
Acid citrate dextrose A for tissue typing, DNA studies, HIV cultures
Yellow vacutainer
whole studies like CBC, ESR using EDTA as anticoagulant
lavender vacutainer
blood typing and cross matching
pink vacutainer
heavy metal, drug toxicology
royal blue vacutainer
lead testing
tan vacutainer
What is the blood draw order?
blood culture 2. citrated tube 3. serum tubes 4. heparin tube 5. EDTA tube 6. glycolytic inhibitor
What is the blood draw order to avoid additive contamination?
Sterile specimens first, followed by coagulation studies, then no anticoagulant tubes, and finally tubes with anticoagulants.
What physiologic factors can affect venous blood samples?
Strenuous exercise, hemolysis, emotional stress, extended contact b/w serum and cells, clot formation and incorrect specimen collection.
What is the significance of a clean catch urine sample?
It is important for accurate test interpretation, reducing contamination from external sources.
A midstream urine sample collected to minimize contamination from skin bacteria
clean catch specimen
What should be done to the area around the urethral meatus before collecting a urine sample?
It should be cleaned to reduce contamination.
Why is it important to minimize contamination in urine samples?
Contaminated samples cannot reliably diagnose urinary tract infections (UTIs).
Where should urine samples be obtained from in patients with an indwelling catheter?
From the tubing rather than the collection bag.
What are the three main components of urinalysis?
Gross assessment, dipstick test (chemical analysis), and microscopic exam.
What does the gross assessment of urine include?
Color, clarity, and odor.
A semiquantitative assessment of various chemical components in urine.
dipstick test
What does a microscopic exam of urine involve?
Examination of urine sediment after centrifugation.
What is the range of color in a urinalysis
ranges from pale yellow to deep amber
Normal urine should be:
clear
Sweet acetone smelling urine could mean:
glycosuria
Foul smelling urine could mean:
bacteria
fecal smelling urine could mean:
fistula
What is the reference range for urine pH?
4.5 - 8.0, with an average of 7.0.
What are some causes for abnormal urine pH
medications, bacteria, diet
What is the reference range for specific gravity of urine?
1.005 - 1.030
What does a higher specific gravity in urine indicate?
More concentrated urine.
What can cause a lower specific gravity in urine?
Overhydration, diabetes insipidus, nephropathy, or acute tubular necrosis.
what is the relationship between ADH and specific gravity?
increases water reabsorption so if >ADH = >water excretion = > specific gravity
What is the reference value for protein in urine?
negative
What is elevated proteinuria a potential indicator of?
renal disease
If protein is > 3.5g/day it is consistant with?
nephrotic syndrome
What does the presence of leukocyte esterase in urine indicate?
Increased white blood cells, supporting a diagnosis of UTI and a contaminated specimen can give false positive
What does a positive nitrite test suggest?
The presence of nitrate-reducing bacteria, often gram-negative rods.
When should you send a urine culture?
if pt has UTI to see bacteria type and what antibiotics will kill it
generally more affective but does not strictly determine antibiotic selection
mean inhibitory concentration
What is the significance of glucose in urine?
Glycosuria may indicate diabetes or renal tubular disorders indicating > 150 - 180 mg/dl plasma glucose
What do elevated ketones in urine indicate?
Utilization of fats instead of carbohydrates, often seen in uncontrolled diabetes or starvation.
A medical emergency in type 1 diabetes caused by excessive ketone production due to insulin deficit.
diabetic ketoacidosis