OPENSTAX MICROBIO (CHAPTERS 1-3 and 7) MC REVIEW QUESTIONS -- EXAM 1 PREP

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56 Terms

1
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Which of the following foods is NOT made by fermentation?

A. Beer

B. Bread

C. Cheese

D. Orange Juice

D

2
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Who is considered the "father of Western medicine"?

A. Marcus Terentius Varro

B. Thucydides

C. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

D. Hippocrates

D

3
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Who was the first to observe "animalcules" under the microscope?

A. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

B. Ötzi the Iceman

C. Marcus Terentius Varro

D. Robert Koch

A

4
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Who proposed that swamps might harbor tiny, disease-causing animals too small to see?

A. Thucydides

B. Marcus Terentius Varro

C. Hippocrates

D. Louis Pasteur

B

5
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Which of the following was NOT a kingdom in Linnaeus's taxonomy?

A. animal

B. mineral

C. protist

D. plant

C

6
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Which of the following is a correct usage of binomial nomenclature? Imagine all answers are Italicized except for A

A. Homo Sapiens

B. homo sapiens

C. Homo sapiens

D. Homo Sapiens

C

7
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Which scientist proposed adding a kingdom for protists?

A. Carolus Linnaeus

B. Carl Woese

C. Robert Whittaker

D. Ernst Haeckel

D

8
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Which of the following is NOT a domain in Woese and Fox's phylogenetic tree?

A. Plantae

B. Bacteria

C. Archaea

D. Eukarya

A

9
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Which of the following is the standard resource for identifying bacteria?

A. Systema Naturae

B. Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology

C. Woese and Fox's phylogenetic tree

D. Haeckel's General Morphology of Organisms

B

10
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Which of the following types of microorganisms is photosynthetic?

A. yeast

B. virus

C. helminth

D. alga

D

11
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Which of the following is a prokaryotic microorganism?

A. helminth

B. protozoan

C. cyanobacterium

D. mold

C

12
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Which of the following is acellular?

A. virus

B. bacterium

C. fungus

D. protozoan

A

13
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Which of the following is a type of fungal microorganism?

A. bacterium

B. protozoan

C. alga

D. yeast

D

14
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Which of the following is not a subfield of microbiology?

A. bacteriology

B. botany

C. clinical microbiology

D. virology

B

15
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Which of the following has the highest energy?

A. Light with long wavelength

B. light with an intermediate wavelength

C. light with a short wavelength

D. It is impossible to tell from the information given.

C

16
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You place a specimen under the microscope and notice that parts of the specimen begin to emit light immediately. These materials can be described as _____________.

A. fluorescent

B. phosphorescent

C. transparent

D. opaque

A

17
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Who was the first to describe "cells" in dead cork tissue?

A. Hans Janssen

B. Zaccharias Janssen

C. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

D. Robert Hooke

D

18
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Who is the PROBABLE inventor of the compound microscope?

A. Girolamo Fracastoro

B. Zaccharias Janssen

C. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

D. Robert Hooke

B

19
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Which would be the best choice for viewing the internal structures of a LIVING protist such as a Paramecium?

A. a brightfield microscope with a stain

B. a brightfield microscope without a stain

C. a darkfield microscope

D. a transmission electron microscope

C

Remember that transmission electron microscopes and brightfield microscopes require the specimen to be DEAD.

20
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Which type of microscope is especially useful for viewing thick structures such as biofilms?

A. a transmission electron microscope

B. a scanning electron microscopes

C. a phase-contrast microscope

D. a confocal scanning laser microscope

E. an atomic force microscope

D

Confocal microscopes create images with a laser that scans multiple z-planes. They produce lots of 2D high-resolution images at various depths

21
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Which type of microscope would be the best choice for viewing very small surface structures of a cell?

A. a transmission electron microscope

B. a scanning electron microscope

C. a brightfield microscope

D. a darkfield microscope

E. a phase-contrast microscope

B

SEMs form images of surfaces of specimen. They can create highly detailed 3D images.

22
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What type of microscope uses an annular stop?

A. a transmission electron microscope

B. a scanning electron microscope

C. a brightfield microscope

D. a darkfield microscope

E. a phase-contrast microscope

E

Phase-contrast microscopes use refraction and interference caused by structures in a specimen to create high-contrast and high-resolution images without staining. They also create images by ALTERING THE WAVELENGTHS OF LIGHT RAYS PASSING THROUGH THE SPECIMEN.

23
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What type of microscope uses a cone of light so that light only hits the specimen indirectly, producing a darker image on a brighter background?

A. a transmission electron microscope

B. a scanning electron microscope

C. a brightfield microscope

D. a darkfield microscope

E. a phase-contrast microscope

D

DARKfield = DARK specimen

BRIGHTfield = BRIGHT specimen

24
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What mordant is used in Gram staining?

A. Crystal Violet

B. Safranin

C. Acid-alcohol

D. Iodine

D

25
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What is one difference between specimen preparation for a transmission electron microscope (TEM) and preparation for a scanning electron microscope (SEM)?

A. Only the TEM specimen requires sputter coating.

B. Only the SEM specimen requires sputter-coating.

C. Only the TEM specimen must be dehydrated.

D. Only the SEM specimen must be dehydrated.

B

SEMs can image all kinds of samples: ceramics, metals and alloys, semiconductors, polymers, biological samples, and much more.

However, certain types of samples are more challenging and require an extra step as the sample is prepared to gather high-quality information.

This extra step involves coating your sample with an additional thin layer of about 10 nanometers (nm) of a conductive material such as gold, silver, platinum, or chromium.

26
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Which of the following individuals argued in favor of the theory of spontaneous generation?

A. Francesco Redi

B. Louis Pasteur

C. John Needham

D. Lazzaro Spallanzani

C

Needham did not boil the organisms in his experiment for long enough, so when they got contaminated with outside microbes, he said "see, this proves spontaneous generation"

Spallanzani redid Needham's experiment but boiled everything longer, therefore disproving SG.

27
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Which of the following individuals is credited for definitively refuting the theory of spontaneous generation using broth in a swan-neck flask?

A. Aristotle

B. Jan Baptista van Helmont

C. John Needham

D. Louis Pasteur

D

The swan-neck flask experiment established the concept of contamination

28
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Which of the following scientists experimented with raw meat, maggots, and flies in an attempt to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation?

A. Aristotle

B. Lazzaro Spallanzani

C. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

D. Francesco Redi

D

29
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.

Which of the following individuals did not contribute to the establishment of cell theory?

A. Girolamo Fracastoro

B. Matthias Schleiden

C. Robert Remak

D. Robert Hooke

A

Girolamo Fracastoro began the first work on THE GERM THEORY OF DISEASE

(Girolamo = Germ)

30
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.

Whose proposal of the endosymbiotic theory of mitochondrial and chloroplast origin was ultimately accepted by the greater scientific community?

A. Rudolf Virchow

B. Ignaz Semmelweis

C. Lynn Margulis

D. Theodor Schwann

C

Lynn Margulis published her ideas regarding the endosymbiotic hypothesis of the origins of mitochondria and chloroplasts in 1967.

31
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Which of the following developed a set of postulates for determining whether a particular disease is caused by a particular pathogen?

A. John Snow

B. Robert Koch

C. Joseph Lister

D. Louis Pasteur

B

Koch est. the connection between microbes and diseases after his exposure to the Cholera disease

32
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Which of the following terms refers to a prokaryotic cell that is comma-shaped?

A. coccus

B. coccobacilli

C. vibrio

D. spirillum

C

Coccus = sphere

Coccobacilli = wide oval

Spirillum = worm-shaped

33
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Which bacterial structures are important for adherence to surfaces? (Select all that apply.)

A. endospores

B. cell walls

C. fimbriae

D. capsules

E. flagella

C, D

Endospores = allow bacteria to survive in harsh environments for long amounts of time

Cell walls = structure

Flagella = motion

34
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Which of the following cell wall components is unique to gram-negative cells?

A. lipopolysaccharide

B. teichoic acid

C. mycolic acid

D. peptidoglycan

A

Lipo = lipid

Poly = >2

saccharide = sugar

The portion of the LPS that is responsible for the toxicity is the core and lipid A portion (the endotoxin). Endotoxin can produce a fever, decrease in the number of white blood cells, and damage to blood vessels resulting in reduced blood pressure.

35
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Which of the following terms refers to a bacterial cell having a single tuft of flagella at one end?

A. monotrichous

B. amphitrichous

C. peritrichous

D. lophotrichous

D

Mono = a single flagellum at one end

Amphi = one at each end

Lopho = a bunch of flagella only on one end

Peri = cover entire surface

36
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Bacterial cell walls are primarily composed of which of the following?

A. phospholipid

B. protein

C. carbohydrate

D. peptidoglycan

D

37
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Which of the following organelles is not part of the endomembrane system?

A. endoplasmic reticulum

B. Golgi apparatus

C. lysosome

D. peroxisome

D

38
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Which type of cytoskeletal fiber is important in the formation of the nuclear lamina?

A. microfilaments

B. intermediate filaments

C. microtubules

D. fibronectin

B

Lamins are type V INTERMEDIATE filament proteins that associate with the inner nuclear membrane and form the meshwork of the nuclear lamina

39
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Sugar groups may be added to proteins in which of the following?

A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

B. rough endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi apparatus

D. lysosome

C

First, carbohydrate units of glycoproteins are altered and elaborated in the Golgi complex. The O-linked sugar units are fashioned there, and the N-linked sugars, arriving from the ER as a component of a glycoprotein, are modified in many different ways.

glycoprotein = "sugar protein"

40
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Which of the following structures of a eukaryotic cell is not likely derived from endosymbiotic bacterium?

A. mitochondrial DNA

B. mitochondrial ribosomes

C. inner membrane

D. outer membrane

D

41
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Which type of nutrient uptake involves the engulfment of small dissolved molecules into vesicles?

A. active transport

B. pinocytosis

C. receptor-mediated endocytosis

D. facilitated diffusion

B

42
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Which of the following is not composed of microtubules?

A. desmosomes

B. centrioles

C. eukaryotic flagella

D. eukaryotic cilia

A

Desmosomes are made of intermediate filaments

43
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Which of these is NOT a micronutrient?

A. C

B. Ca

C. Co

D. Cu

A

Carbon is a MACROnutrient; the most abundant element, and is present in every organic molecule

44
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Which of the following is the name for molecules whose structures are nonsuperimposable mirror images?

A. structural isomers

B. monomers

C. polymers

D. enantiomers

D

45
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By definition, carbohydrates contain which elements?

A. carbon and hydrogen

B. carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

C. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

D. carbon and oxygen

C

46
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Monosaccharides may link together to form polysaccharides by forming which type of bond?

A. hydrogen

B. peptide

C. ionic

D. glycosidic

D

Hydrogen bonds are too weak to form polysaccharides

Peptide bonds are most abundant in PROTEINS

Ionic bonds are attractions between two completely oppositely charged elements (ex. Na+ and Cl-) -- (polymers are made of the same monomers, just in a larger amount)

47
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Which of the following describes lipids?

A. a source of nutrients for organisms

B. energy-storage molecules

C. molecules having a structural role in membranes

D. molecules that are part of hormones and pigments

E. all of the above

E

48
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Molecules bearing both polar and nonpolar groups are said to be which of the following?

A. hydrophilic

B. amphipathic

C. hydrophobic

D. polyfunctional

B

HydroPHILIC = water loving

HydroPHOBIC = water fearing

Polyfunctional probably means "many functions", so it doesn't fit the context of the question

49
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Which of the following groups varies among different amino acids?

A. hydrogen atom

B. carboxyl group

C. R group

D. amino group

C

50
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The amino acids present in proteins differ in which of the following?

A. size

B. shape

C. side groups

D. all of the above

D

51
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Which of the following bonds are not involved in tertiary structure?

A. peptide bonds

B. ionic bonds

C. hydrophobic interactions

D. hydrogen bonds

A

PRIMARY structure has peptide bonds (used to connect chains of Amino Acids).

Tertiary structures are generally stabilized by outside polar hydrophilic HYDROGEN AND IONIC bond interactions, and internal hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar amino acid side chains

52
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Which of the following characteristics/compounds is not considered to be a phenotypic biochemical characteristic used for microbial identification?

A. poly-β-hydroxybutyrate

B. small-subunit (16S) rRNA gene

C. carbon utilization

D. lipid composition

B

16S ribosomal RNA (or 16S rRNA) is the RNA component of the 30S small subunit of a prokaryotic ribosome (SSU rRNA). It binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence and provides most of the SSU structure.

53
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Proteomic analysis is a methodology that deals with which of the following?

A. the analysis of proteins functioning as enzymes within the cell

B. analysis of transport proteins in the cell

C. the analysis of integral proteins of the cell membrane

D. the study of all accumulated proteins of an organism

D

54
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Which method involves the generation of gas phase ions from intact microorganisms?

A. FAME

B. PLFA

C. MALDI-TOF

D. Lancefield group testing

C

55
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Which method involves the analysis of membrane-bound carbohydrates?

A. FAME

B. PLFA

C. MALDI-TOF

D. Lancefield group testing

D

56
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Which method involves the conversion of a microbe's lipids to volatile compounds for analysis by gas chromatography?

A. FAME

B. proteomic analysis

C. MALDI-TOF

D. Lancefield group testing

A