anatomy final - thorax, pelvis, and abdomen high yield

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303 Terms

1
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overall shape of thorax

truncated cone, narrow superiorly and widening inferiorly

<p>truncated cone, narrow superiorly and widening inferiorly</p>
2
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what structures form the boundaries of the bony cage of the thorax

vertebrae posteriorly, ribs laterally, and the sternum anteriorly.

<p>vertebrae posteriorly, ribs laterally, and the sternum anteriorly.</p>
3
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what forms the floor of the thoracic cavity and also fills the inferior thoracic aperture

diaphragm

<p>diaphragm</p>
4
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what structures bound the superior thoracic aperture (opening)?

bounded by t1 vertebra, the 1st pair of ribs, and the manubrium.

<p>bounded by t1 vertebra, the 1st pair of ribs, and the manubrium.</p>
5
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what structures typically pass through the superior thoracic aperture?

the trachea, esophagus, and neurovasculature.

6
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three main components of the osteocartilaginous thoracic cage

-12 pairs of ribs and costal cartilages

-12 thoracic vertebrae and intervertebral discs

-sternum

<p>-12 pairs of ribs and costal cartilages</p><p>-12 thoracic vertebrae and intervertebral discs</p><p>-sternum</p>
7
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ribs (1st-7th) that articulate directly with the sternum via their own costal cartilage.

true ribs

8
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ribs (8th-10th) whose costal cartilages articulate indirectly with the sternum by joining the cartilage of the rib above.

false ribs

9
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ribs (11th-12th, sometimes 10th) that do not articulate with the sternum at all.

floating ribs

10
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what are the three parts of the sternum?

manubrium, body, xiphoid process

<p>manubrium, body, xiphoid process</p>
11
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key landmark is found at the superior border of the manubrium

jugular notch

12
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what important anatomical landmark is formed by the junction of the manubrium and the sternal body?

sternal angle (of louis) at t4-t5

13
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this joint marks the junction of the sternum body and the xiphoid process, typically at the t10 vertebral level.

xiphisternal joint

14
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three major spaces dividing the thoracic cavity?

central mediastinum, and the right and left pulmonary cavities.

<p>central mediastinum, and the right and left pulmonary cavities.</p>
15
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the central compartment of the thoracic cavity, located between the pulmonary cavities is termed

mediastinum

<p>mediastinum</p>
16
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what landmark separates the superior mediastinum from the inferior mediastinum?

the transverse thoracic plane, passing from the sternal angle to the t4/t5 intervertebral disc.

17
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key structures located in the superior mediastinum

thymus, great vessels (arch of aorta, brachiocephalic veins, svc), trachea, esophagus, thoracic duct, and major nerves (vagus, phrenic).

18
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key structures located in the posterior mediastinum.

thoracic aorta, thoracic duct, azygos system of veins, and esophagus.

19
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common location for bone marrow biopsy

sternum

<p>sternum</p>
20
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feels like a "knot in back" and is a displacement of costal cartilage from sternum

sternal biopsy

21
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rare to have this type of rib fracture

1st rib fracture

hallmark of severe blunt trauma

22
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what forms the intercostal nerves?

the anterior rami of t1-t11 spinal nerves.

23
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what is the name of the anterior ramus of t12?

the subcostal nerve.

24
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what clinical condition causes a dermatomally distributed rash and burning pain along an intercostal nerve pathway?

herpes zoster (shingles)

25
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what are the three primary arterial sources supplying the thoracic wall?

the thoracic aorta, subclavian artery, and axillary artery.

26
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what type of arterial network is characteristic of the thoracic wall blood supply?

a rich network characterized by numerous anastomoses.

27
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what is an 'intercostal nerve block' used for?

pain control, often for rib fractures, by blocking sensory nerve transmission.

28
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what type of glands are in the subcutaneous tissue, overlying pec major and minor muscles

mammary glands

<p>mammary glands</p>
29
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the breast is mainly supplied by this artery

medial mammary branches of perforating branches from the subclavian artery

30
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what is the primary lymphatic plexus for breast drainage?

the subareolar lymphatic plexus.

<p>the subareolar lymphatic plexus.</p>
31
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what percentage of breast lymph typically drains into the axillary lymph nodes?

over 75%.

<p>over 75%.</p>
32
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what arteries supply the anterior thoracic wall and breast, and from where do they arise?

the internal thoracic arteries (internal mammary arteries), arising from the subclavian artery.

33
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what are the other significant lymph nodes that receive breast lymph?

the parasternal lymph nodes (internal mammary nodes).

34
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what is a key prognostic indicator related to breast lymphatic drainage in cancer?

the involvement of axillary lymph nodes.

35
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why is understanding breast lymphatic drainage critical clinically?

it's crucial for predicting the spread and staging of breast cancer, as cancer cells often metastasize via these lymphatic channels.

36
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what is the largest lymphatic channel in the body?

the thoracic duct.

37
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what is the general course of the thoracic duct through the thoracic cavity?

it ascends into the posterior mediastinum, passing through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm.

38
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where does the thoracic duct originate?

it originates from the cisterna chyli in the abdomen.

<p>it originates from the cisterna chyli in the abdomen.</p>
39
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where is the thoracic duct located relative to the vertebrae in the posterior mediastinum?

anterior to the T5-T12 vertebrae.

40
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where does the thoracic duct typically drain into the venous system?

near the left venous angle (the junction of the left internal jugular and left subclavian veins).

41
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which major body regions does the thoracic duct NOT drain?

the right thorax, right upper limb, and the right side of the head and neck.

<p>the right thorax, right upper limb, and the right side of the head and neck.</p>
42
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what lymphatic trunks contribute to the thoracic duct on the left side?

jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunks

<p>jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunks</p>
43
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what is the major gi tract structure found in the thoracic cavity?

the esophagus.

44
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describe the primary function of the esophagus.

to transport food from the pharynx to the stomach through coordinated muscle contractions called peristalsis.

45
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in which two main regions of the mediastinum does the esophagus descend?

the superior mediastinum and the posterior mediastinum.

46
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where is the esophagus located in the superior mediastinum relative to the trachea?

posterior to the trachea and anterior to the vertebral column.

<p>posterior to the trachea and anterior to the vertebral column.</p>
47
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where is the esophagus located in the posterior mediastinum relative to the pericardium and vertebrae?

anterior to the t5-t12 vertebrae and posterior to the pericardium.

48
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which opening in the diaphragm does the esophagus pass through?

the esophageal hiatus.

49
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at what vertebral level does the esophageal hiatus typically occur?

typically at the t10 vertebral level.

50
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what are some key structures the esophagus is closely related to in the thorax?

the trachea, aorta, and vagus nerves.

<p>the trachea, aorta, and vagus nerves.</p>
51
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what is the primary function of the coronary arteries?

they provide the dedicated blood supply to the myocardium and epicardium (heart muscle and outer layer).

52
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where do the coronary arteries originate?

they are the first branches directly off the ascending aorta.

53
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which coronary artery typically descends in the coronary sulcus, giving off the right marginal branch?

the right coronary artery (rca).

54
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what significant branch does the rca often give rise to posteriorly in most individuals?

the posterior interventricular branch (posterior descending artery, pda).

55
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what are the two main branches of the left coronary artery (lca)?

the anterior interventricular branch (lad) and the circumflex branch.

56
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what is the common name for the lad (left anterior descending) artery due to the severity of blockages there?

the widowmaker.

57
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which branch of the lca runs in the coronary sulcus around the left side of the heart?

the circumflex branch.

58
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what does coronary dominance refer to?

it refers to which coronary artery gives rise to the posterior interventricular branch (pda).

59
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what is the most common pattern of coronary dominance?

right dominant (67% of people).

60
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what is the primary pathway for venous drainage of the posterior thoracic wall?

the azygos venous system.

61
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describe the azygos vein's location and drainage.

it runs on the right side of the vertebral column and drains into the superior vena cava (svc).

62
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what veins typically run on the left side of the vertebral column and often drain into the azygos vein?

the hemi-azygos vein and accessory hemi-azygos vein.

63
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what important collateral pathway does the azygos system form?

a collateral pathway between the svc and ivc.

64
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how is the anterior thoracic wall primarily drained venously?

by the internal thoracic veins, which typically drain into the brachiocephalic veins.

65
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what is the major venous structure that collects most of the coronary venous blood?

the coronary sinus.

66
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where is the coronary sinus located and where does it drain?

it's a large vein in the posterior part of the coronary sulcus, draining into the right atrium.

67
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name three major tributaries of the coronary sinus.

the great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, and small cardiac vein.

68
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what three major vessels deliver deoxygenated blood to the right atrium?

the superior vena cava (svc), inferior vena cava (ivc), and coronary sinus.

69
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what valve does deoxygenated blood pass through to move from the right atrium to the right ventricle?

the tricuspid valve (right av valve).

70
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what are the rough muscular elevations lining the interior of the right ventricle?

trabeculae carneae.

71
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what valve does blood pass through to leave the right ventricle and enter the pulmonary circulation?

the pulmonary valve (a semilunar valve).

72
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what vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs?

the pulmonary trunk, which then divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries.

73
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what vessels return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium?

the four pulmonary veins.

74
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what valve does oxygenated blood pass through from the left atrium to the left ventricle?

the mitral valve (bicuspid valve, left av valve).

75
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which heart chamber forms the apex of the heart and has the thickest walls?

the left ventricle.

76
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what valve does blood pass through to leave the left ventricle and enter systemic circulation?

the aortic valve (a semilunar valve).

77
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what is the function of the heart's fibrous skeleton?

it anchors myocardial fibers, maintains valve orifices, provides attachment for valve leaflets, and electrically insulates the atria from the ventricles.

78
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what nerve innervates the diaphragm?

the phrenic nerves.

79
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from which cervical spinal nerves do the phrenic nerves originate?

c3, c4, and c5.

80
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what clinical condition results from disruption of the phrenic nerve's impulse to the diaphragm?

hemidiaphragm paralysis.

81
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what is 'paradoxical movement' of the diaphragm in hemidiaphragm paralysis?

the paralyzed side moves up during inspiration instead of descending, due to negative intrathoracic pressure.

<p>the paralyzed side moves up during inspiration instead of descending, due to negative intrathoracic pressure.</p>
82
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what plexus provides innervation to the lungs and visceral pleura?

the pulmonary plexus.

83
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what is the general effect of sympathetic stimulation on the lungs?

bronchodilation and pulmonary vasoconstriction.

84
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what is the general effect of parasympathetic stimulation (via vagus nerve) on the lungs?

bronchoconstriction and pulmonary vasodilation.

85
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what type of fibers carry subconscious sensations and pain signals from the lungs and pleura?

afferent visceral fibers.

86
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which pleura is insensitive to pain, and which is highly sensitive?

the visceral pleura is insensitive; the parietal pleura is highly sensitive.

87
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what intrinsic ability does the heart possess regarding impulse generation?

autorhythmic ability (it can generate its own impulses).

88
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what is the effect of sympathetic stimulation on the heart?

increases heart rate (chronotropy) and force of contraction (inotropy), and causes coronary vasodilation.

89
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what is the effect of parasympathetic stimulation (via vagus nerves) on the heart?

decreases heart rate and force of contraction, and causes coronary vasoconstriction.

90
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what is the heart's natural pacemaker?

the sinu-atrial (sa) node, located near the svc in the right atrium.

91
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what is the function of the atrioventricular (av) node?

it receives impulses from the sa node and introduces a slight delay before transmitting them to the ventricles.

92
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what structures distribute electrical impulses throughout the ventricular myocardium?

the subendocardial branches (purkinje fibers).

93
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three major openings (hiatuses) in the diaphragm and the primary structures that pass through them.

caval opening (t8): inferior vena cava (ivc).

esophageal hiatus (t10): esophagus and vagus nerves. aortic hiatus (t12): aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct.

94
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pericardium

a fibroserous sac that surrounds and protects the heart and the roots of the great vessels.

95
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two main layers of the pericardium

the tough outer fibrous pericardium and the inner double-layered serous pericardium.

96
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two layers of the serous pericardium

the parietal layer (lining the fibrous pericardium) and the visceral layer (epicardium) (adhering to the heart surface).

97
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function of the serous fluid in the pericardial cavity

to reduce friction during heartbeats.

98
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cardiac tamponade

a life-threatening condition where excessive fluid/blood in the pericardial cavity compresses the heart, restricting its filling and decreasing cardiac output.

99
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the most inferior aspect of the abdominopelvic cavity. it is surrounded by the pelvic girdle.

the pelvis

100
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how is the pelvis subdivided?

into the greater pelvis (above the pelvic brim) and the lesser pelvis (below the pelvic brim).