[MDCU] Female genital tract infections

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Description and Tags

Cover core contents from - L11 : leukorrhea, STD, HIV infection - L23 : infectious disease in pregnancy

Medicine

67 Terms

1

What are 5 components of vaginal secretion?

VEx TEC

  • Vulvar secretion

  • Exfoliated cells from cervix & vagina

  • Transudate from vagina

  • Endometrial / oviduct fluid

  • Cervical mucous

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2

Which hormone is responsible for glycogen formation in the vagina?

Estrogen

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3

What are 4 principal outcome of STD therapy?

  1. Microbiological eradication

  2. Alleviate symptoms

  3. Sequelae prevention

  4. Transmission prevention

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4

What are Amsel’s criteria for bacterial vaginosis?

  1. Thin white gray homogenous discharge

  2. Positive Whiff test

  3. pH >4.5

  4. Clue cell >20% of epithelial cells

<ol><li><p>Thin white gray homogenous discharge </p></li><li><p>Positive Whiff test </p></li><li><p>pH &gt;4.5 </p></li><li><p>Clue cell &gt;20% of epithelial cells </p></li></ol>
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5

What is the gold standard for the diagnosis of BV?

Gram stain

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6

What is the gold standard for the diagnosis of trichomoniasis?

Culture, NAAT

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7

Antibiotics for bacterial vaginosis

Metronidazole 500 mg oral 2 × 7

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8

Antibiotics for trichomoniasis in affected patient

Metronidazole 500 mg oral 2 × 7

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9

Antibiotics for trichomoniasis in sexual partner

Metronidazole 2 g oral single dose

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10

Which disease causing abnormal vaginal discharge requires follow-up?

Trichomonas vaginalis (3 months)

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11

After treatment, patients with trichomonas vaginalis should be retested at ___ months

3 months

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12

Which disease causing abnormal vaginal discharge increases the risk of HIV infection?

Trichomonas vaginalis

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13

Which disease causing abnormal vaginal discharge increases the risk of post-cesarean endometritis?

Bacterial vaginosis

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14

Which disease causing abnormal vaginal discharge increases the risk of abnormal cervical cytology?

Bacterial vaginosis

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15

BV and trichomoniasis can cause which complications during pregnancy?

  • PROM

  • Preterm labor

  • Chorioamnionitis (BV)

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16

Antibiotics for vaginal candidiasis

  • Clotrimazole 100 mg suppository 1 × 7

  • Fluconazole 150 mg oral single dose

  • Antipruritics: CPM, hydroxyzine

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17

Antibiotics for vaginal candidiasis in pregnancy

Clotrimazole 100 mg suppository 1 × 7

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18

Cervicitis usually presents with which symptoms?

  • Purulent exudate (WBC >10/HPF)

  • Cervix that easily bleeds

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19

Leukorrhea is a sensitive indicator for ___?

Cervical inflammation (cervicitis)

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20

Patients with leukorrhea should be tested for which infection?

HIV and syphilis

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21

Antibiotics for gonococcal infection in affected patient

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose + Azithromycin 1 g oral single dose

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22

Antibiotics for gonococcal infection in sexual partner

Cefixime 400 mg oral single dose + Azithromycin 1 g oral single dose

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23

Which pathogen causes genital ulcers that involve a superficial skin layer?

HSV

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24

Which pathogen causes genital ulcers that involve a deep skin layer with undermined edge?

Chancroid

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25

Which pathogen causes genital ulcers that involve a deep skin layer with smooth indurated edge?

Syphilis

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26

Which pathogen causes genital ulcers that involve dysuria?

HSV

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27

What is the diagnostic test for chancroid?

Culture for H.ducreyi

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28

What is the diagnostic test for HSV genital ulcer?

PCR for HSV DNA

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29

What are criteria for probable diagnosis of chancroid?

  • Painful genital ulcers

  • Regional lymphadenopathy

  • Negative for syphilis

  • Negative for HSV

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30

Antibiotics for chancroid

  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose /

  • Azithromycin 1 g oral single dose

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31

Antibiotics for primary syphilis

Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM single dose

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32

Non-treponemal test detects antibody to ___?

Cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin antigen

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33

Non-treponemal test usually report as ___

Antibody titer

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34

Treponemal test usually report as ___

Reactive / non-reactive

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35

What are possible causes for false negative non-treponemal test?

  • Prozone phenomenon

  • Early infection

  • Late latent infection

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36

What are HIV treatment goal for Thailand in 2573?

  • No new congenital HIV

  • New cases <1,000 / year

  • Access to ARV & no stigmatization

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37

Recommended HAART regimen

TDF / TAF + Emtricitabine / Lamivudine + Dolutegravir

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38

What is the management for pregnant woman receiving dolutegravir?

Risk of neural tube defect ↑

  • Folic acid 4 mg

  • Ultrasound screening

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39

Which ARV drug should not be used with ergots?

Lopinavir / ritonavir (CYP inhibitor)

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40

Which ARV drug, if taken with ergots, decreases their serum concentration?

Efavirenz (CYP inducer)

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41

What is the drug regimen for pregnant woman GA >32 weeks with HIV VL >1,000?

  • TAF / TDF

  • Emtricitabine / Lamivudine

  • Dolutegravir

  • Raltegravir

Goal: ใช้ยา 4 ตัวเพื่อลดระดับไวรัสให้เร็วที่สุด

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42

What is the delivery method for pregnant woman with HIV VL >1,000?

  • Zidovudine 600 mg

  • Elective C/S before labor at GA 38 weeks

  • Avoid ARM & invasive monitoring

  • Avoid LPV/r + ergots

<ul><li><p>Zidovudine 600 mg</p></li><li><p>Elective C/S before labor at GA 38 weeks</p></li><li><p><span style="color: red">Avoid ARM &amp; invasive monitoring</span></p></li><li><p><span style="color: red">Avoid LPV/r + ergots</span> </p></li></ul>
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43

What is the delivery method for pregnant woman with HIV VL 50-1,000?

  • Zidovudine 600 mg

  • Can try vaginal delivery

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44

What is the delivery method for pregnant woman with HIV VL <50?

  • Zidovudine is optional

  • Can try vaginal delivery

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45

Pregnant woman receiving ART before GA 20 weeks should be tested for HIV VL at GA ___

GA 32 weeks

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46

Pregnant woman receiving ART after GA 20 weeks for >12 weeks should be tested for HIV VL at GA ___

GA 34-36 weeks

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47

Pregnant woman receiving ART after GA 20 weeks for <12 weeks should be tested for HIV VL at GA ___

GA 36 weeks

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48

What is the formula for daily PrEP?

TDF/FTC x 1 daily for at least 7 days

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49

What is the formula for on-demand PrEP?

  • TDF/FTC x2 2-24 hrs before SI

  • x1 daily until 2 days after last SI

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50

What is the formula for PEP?

TDF/FTC + DTG within 72 hours after SI for 28 days

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51

When is the risk of HIV vertical transmission highest?

  • 36 weeks labor

  • During labor

<ul><li><p>36 weeks labor </p></li><li><p>During labor </p></li></ul>
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52

What are risk factors of HIV vertical transmission?

  • Preterm

  • Prolong ROM

  • Placental disruption

  • Breastfeeding

  • Vaginal delivery

  • Invasive fetal monitoring

<ul><li><p>Preterm</p></li><li><p>Prolong ROM</p></li><li><p>Placental disruption</p></li><li><p>Breastfeeding</p></li><li><p>Vaginal delivery</p></li><li><p>Invasive fetal monitoring</p></li></ul>
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53

Which antiretroviral drug should be given to a newborn with high risk of contracting HIV?

  • Zidovudine syrup 4 mg/kg q 12 hours x 4 weeks

  • Lamivudine syrup 2 mg/kg q 12 hours x 4 weeks

  • Nevirapine syrup 4 mg/kg q 24 hours x 4 weeks

<ul><li><p>Zidovudine syrup 4 mg/kg q 12 hours x 4 weeks </p></li><li><p>Lamivudine syrup 2 mg/kg q 12 hours x 4 weeks </p></li><li><p>Nevirapine syrup 4 mg/kg q 24 hours x 4 weeks  </p></li></ul>
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54

Which antiretroviral drug should be given to a newborn with standard risk of contracting HIV?

Zidovudine 4 mg/kg q 12 hours x 4 weeks

<p>Zidovudine 4 mg/kg q 12 hours x 4 weeks </p>
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55

Newborns with high risk of contracting HIV should receive HIV PCR at ___ months

1, 2, 4 months

<p>1, 2, 4 months</p>
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56

Newborns with standard risk of contracting HIV should receive HIV PCR at ___ months

1, 2-4 months

<p>1, 2-4 months </p>
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57

Window period of hepatitis B infection is a state when ___ (2) are both negative

HBsAg and Anti-HBs

<p>HBsAg and Anti-HBs</p>
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58

What is the risk factor of HBV vertical transmission?

  • Absence of post-exposure prophylaxis

  • Breastfeeding

<ul><li><p>Absence of post-exposure prophylaxis </p></li><li><p><s><span style="color: red">Breastfeeding</span></s> </p></li></ul>
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59

What is the prophylaxis to HBV infection in infants born to mothers with HBsAg+?

  • HBIG within 12 hours

  • HBV vaccine at 0, 1, 6 months

<ul><li><p>HBIG within 12 hours </p></li><li><p>HBV vaccine at 0, 1, 6 months </p></li></ul>
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60

Which factors are associated with failure of HBV immunoprophylaxis?

  • HBeAg +

  • High viral load (>200,000 units / >1,000,000 copy/ml)

<ul><li><p>HBeAg + </p></li><li><p>High viral load (&gt;200,000 units / &gt;1,000,000 copy/ml) </p></li></ul>
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61

When is the timing for maternal HBV antiviral therapy to be initiated?

Early 3rd trimester

→ Lamivudine, Tenofovir

<p>Early 3rd trimester </p><p>→ Lamivudine, Tenofovir</p>
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62

Which laboratory test should be done in mother with HBsAg+?

HBeAg & ALT at GA 18-20 weeks

  • HBeAg+ → TDF at 26-30 weeks

  • ALT ↑ → Med

<p>HBeAg &amp; ALT at GA 18-20 weeks </p><ul><li><p>HBeAg+ → TDF at 26-30 weeks </p></li><li><p>ALT ↑ → Med </p></li></ul>
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63

What is the management for women with HBsAg+ and HBeAg+?

Start TDF at GA 26-30 weeks

<p>Start TDF at GA 26-30 weeks </p>
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64

What is the postpartum management for women with HBsAg+ and HBeAg+?

  • Stop TDF at 4 weeks

  • ALT at 6 weeks

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65

Which vaccines administered during pregnancy have maternal benefit?

  • Pneumococcal

  • Rabies

  • Influenza

  • Meningococcal

  • Tetanus toxoid

  • Hepatitis A & B

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66

Which vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy?

BOMVaRJ DIZ

  • BCG

  • OPV

  • MMR

  • Varicella

  • Rotavirus

  • JE

  • Dengue

  • Influenza (live-attenuated)

  • Zoster

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67

When should influenza and tetanus vaccine be administered during pregnancy?

Influenza (inactivated) x1 during 2nd / 3rd trimester

Tdap x1 : 20-32 weeks

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