Diseases and Sanitation MIDTERM REVIEW

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Last updated 3:26 AM on 3/3/26
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151 Terms

1
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This results from any structural defect or functional impairment of the animal body

Disease

2
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Disease prevention programs can be developed to help avoid infection and infestation.

true

3
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Which is a symptom of an STI (sexually transmitted infection)

Abortions

4
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Which is an example of a fomite?

Boot

5
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Laminitis is a combination of shed skin cells, skin oils, and moisture that can become hard and cause a bean to form in the sheath of a stallion or gelding

False

6
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Disease that is an isolated incident in a single animal.

Sporadically

7
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Grooming helps remove loose hair and skin debris.

true

8
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Which describes a disease that spreads rapidly over very large areas (worldwide) and effects many animals in a short period of time.

Panzootic

9
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What is biosecurity based on?

prevention

10
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Animals always exhibit obvious clinical signs of disease.

false

11
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Internal biosecurity prevents everything outside the farm from getting on the farm.

true

12
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When considering the iceberg phenomenon, which are visible cases that are “above the surface.

Clinical/diagnosed

13
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Water should always be accessible to the animal and free contamination.

true

14
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At which level of prevention would there already be an established disease, but the aim is to reduce the negative impact of the disease.

tertiary

15
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The manifestation of diseases are symptoms.

true

16
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Which is true of microorganisms?

Able to live outside the host

17
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Vector control does little to disrupt the cycle of infection

false

18
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A rapid change in feed never causes GI upset that could lead to illness.

false

19
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Grooming helps keep an animal in good health.

true

20
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Laminitis is seen by inflammation in the hoofs; what is the root cause talked about in class?

None of the above

21
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Reliable ways to assess if an animal possibly has an infection or is ill include which of the following?

observing the animal as it moves or eats

22
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Water must be what?

All of the above

23
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The destruction of a large number of animals is termed stamping out (depopulation).

true

24
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Animals always exhibit obvious clinical signs of disease.

false

25
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Spore former

able to survive the heat applied when pelletizing feed

26
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Irradiation

potential but not readily used to decontaminate feed

27
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Infectious diseases

invade the animal’s body

28
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Influences on disease

climatic or physiological seasons

29
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Noninfectious disease

not spread from one animal to another

30
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Which is a protectant to keep pathogens out?

Mucus

31
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Essential oils can be used to reduce the number of bacterial contaminants in feed

true

32
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Which is true of self-feeders

keep animals from depositing feces in them

33
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Why must food bins be kept dry and clean

none of the above

34
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A low rumen pH causes what?

rumen acidosis

35
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The manifestation of diseases is symptoms.

true

36
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This type of biosecurity prevents the spread of disease on the farm

bio-management

37
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Feed additives can complement biosecurity

true

38
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Preventing disease spread from let’s say barn a to barn b on a farm is an example of what?

internal biosecurity

39
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Which is true of a biosecurity plan?

increased biosecurity means less dependence on a cure

40
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What is one of the dangers of using water from a flowing stream?

water can become contaminated upstream

41
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Which entry point doesn’t use mucus as a protectant.

skin

42
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Typhoid Mary is an example of what kind of transmission?

fecal oral

43
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A disease that normally exists in animals but can infect humans is called what

Zoonotic

44
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In the iceberg phenomena picture as it relates to disease where would undiagnosed cases be?

below the surface(hidden cases)

45
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While sanitation promotes hygiene it does not aid in disease prevention

false

46
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Explain the epidemiological triad

Disease results from the interaction of the Host, Agent, and Environment. Cycle of Infection Intervention

47
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Which of the following best defines sterilization?

destruction of all forms of microbial life

48
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Which most interferes with disinfectant activity?

organic material

49
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Which microbial form is considered the most resistant?

bacterial spores

50
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Phenolic compounds are generally ineffective against which highly resistant microbial forms?

spores

51
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Chlorine and iodine belong to which class of chemical antimicrobial agents commonly used for disinfection and antisepsis?

halogens

52
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Missing bleach (sodium hypochlorite) with ammonia results in the formation of toxic chemical gases?

chloramine vapor

53
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What is the first essential step in an effective disinfection protocol required to remove organic debris that can inhibit the action of chemical disinfectants?

remove organic material

54
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In sanitation and disinfection practices, what does the term disease buildup refer to?

accumulation of pathogens

55
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Biofilms are best described as which type of microbial community structure?

microbial communities attached to surfaces

56
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Ultraviolet (UV) light exerts its antimicrobial effect primarily by causing what type of damage to microbial cells?

breaking down DNA

57
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Mechanical cleaning in a sanitation or disinfection protocol refers to which type of process?

scraping and pressure washing

58
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A desirable disinfectant should possess essential characteristics to ensure effective and safe microbial control?

broad spectrum

59
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Which disinfectant class maintains activity in organic matter?

phenols

60
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Formols are effective against which types of microorganisms?

all of the above

61
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Sanitizers are primarily used to:

reduce microbial load

62
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Antiseptics are used on:

living tissue

63
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Heat kills microbes when:

applied sufficiently

64
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Sunlight UV is ineffective when:

early morning

65
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All-in/All-out prevents:

age mixing infection

66
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Organic matter shields pathogens because:

it blocks disinfectant penetration

67
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In the context of infectious disease transmission, what is a fomite?

inanimate disease carrier

68
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Fomite transmission is:

secondary

69
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Which is NOT a fomite?

Midge

70
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Visitors should disclose what information?

travel history with animals

71
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What is the best vehicle biosecurity practice?

separate on/off farm vehicles

72
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Sick animals typically _________________ compared to healthy animals.

shed more pathogens

73
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Due to their immature systems and heightened vulnerability ton infectious agents, calves are most:

susceptible

74
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Equipment used for manure and feed:

must be separated or disinfected

75
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Somatic cell count (SCC) monitoring helps detect:

mastitis

76
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Pre-dip contact time is?

15-20 sec

77
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Keratin plug forms:

after milking

78
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To minimize pathogen exposure and promote health early development, neonatal pens should:

be cleaned between uses

79
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Feed trucks should:

avoid animal areas

80
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Petting zoos increases risk due to:

lack of hygiene control

81
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Restricting visitor access:

reduces fomite risk

82
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All-in/All-out cuts:

infection cycles

83
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Cleaning must occur:

before disinfection

84
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Fomites require what route to infect host?

secondary

85
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Open wounds increase:

fomite entry

86
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Hospital parlor cows are milked:

last

87
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Fly life cycle shortest in:

warm

88
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What is the correct order of the fly life cycle?

egg→larva→pupa→adult

89
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Mosquito larvae breathe via:

siphon

90
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Biting midges lay eggs in:

decaying vegetation

91
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What are ticks controlled with?

acaricides

92
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Mosquitoes transmit:

West Nile

93
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Ticks transmit:

anaplasmosis

94
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Larvicides are preferred because:

target specific

95
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Adulticides require:

light wind/no rain

96
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Tires on silage piles primarily:

trap stagnant water

97
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In which months do viruses survive the longest?

cold, winter

98
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How can chickens be used to control vectors?

follow behind cattle/eat larva in manure

99
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Which is not a stage of biofilm formation?

apoptosis

100
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As the number of flies per animal _________, the discomfort level of the cattle ________

increases, increases

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