Unit 4 test

What is the study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system?

Immunopathology

atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category

Type I hypersensitivity

What type of allergen is bee sting venom considered to be?

Injectant

What type of allergen do fungal spores and animal dander represent?

Inhalant

What is the initial encounter with an allergen called?

Sensitizing dose

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of type I hypersensitivity?

Contact dermatitis

What type of allergy is a chronic local allergy such as hay fever considered?

Atopic

What is the systemic reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse called?

Systemic anaphylactic reaction

What is the seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens known as?

Allergic rhinitis

What process are specific allergens undergoing?

Desensitization

Contact dermatitis involves what factors?

a sensitive and provocative dose an allergen entering the skin t lymphocytes secreting inflammation cytokines itchy papule and blisters

When is tissue transplanted from one site on a patient to a different site on the same patient?

Autograft

In which diseases do autoantibodies cause tissue injury, except for?

Tuberculin reaction

Allergy and atopy may have evolved due to a decrease in what exposure?

Exposure to helminth infection

molecular mimicry is when ________ on host cells resemble_________on pathogens causing the host to mount an immune responded to hist tissue

antigens

includes anaphylaxis a systemic fatal reaction with airway obstruction and respiratory collapse

Type I

Which type of immune response involves complement-assisted lysis of cells coated with antibodies?

Type II

What type of hypersensitivity involves immune complexes lodging in basement membranes?

Type III

Which type of hypersensitivity involves T-cells and delayed reactions?

Type IV

What is true of autoimmune diseases?

They often manifest as type I, II, III, and IV hypersensitivities.

What causes severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDS)?

A genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.

What is a secondary acquired immunodeficiency?

AIDS.

What type of hypersensitivity causes red, itchy earlobes after wearing earrings?

Type IV.

What is not a phenotypic method of identification?

Antibody response.

biochemical test includes

Sugar fermentation, presence of catalase, gas production, presence of oxidase.

What is required for specimen collection?

Must utilize aseptic techniques.

Which specimen is typically not suitable for bacterial culture?

Hair.

Which sample is not typically collected by sterile needle aspiration?

Urine.

What test is especially good for bacteria that are not readily cultivated?

Direct fluorescence antibody (DFA) testing.

What is involved in in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?

Serology.

What refers to the test's ability to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigen?

Sensitivity.

What does titer measure?

Amount of antibody in serum.

How can syphilis be most easily diagnosed?

Direct fluorescent.

What is the confirming test for people initially testing positive in the ELISA test for HIV?

Western blot.

What is the primary advantage of genotype methods of identification?

Culturing of the organism is not required.

What disease is in vivo testing especially useful for diagnosing?

Tuberculosis.

What test is effective for genetic analysis of DNA samples?

PCR.

Microorganisms can be identified from a patient sample using biochemical tests based on the premise that

organisms have a unique combination of metabolic enzymes that are displayed when color-changing dyes are utilized to demonstrate their physiological response to specific substrate

An outbreak of hepatitis A originationg in a popular chain of restaurant serving fresh produce necessitated the rapid analysis of the viral genome in order to trace its source. The genome was scanned and analyzed multiple times to reduce errors. This is an example of __________

Whole genome sequencing.

How are most enzymatic reactions observed in biochemical testing?

Usually visualized by a color change.

What does the indirect ELISA technique detect?

The presence of antibody using a known antigen.

What is required for antibody testing?

A known antigen.

What does PCR's usefulness result in?

Amplification of sample DNA.

What do blisters result from?

Separation of the epidermis from the dermis.

What material in skin cells provides protection?

Keratin.

Which group of microorganisms does not usually colonize the skin?

Escherichia.

What enzyme is found in Staphylococcus aureus but not Staphylococcus epidermidis?

Coagulase.

What is the enzyme that coagulates plasma?

Coagulase.

All staphylococci can be differentiated by producing what enzyme?

Catalase.

What causes impetigo?

Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except

Scalded skin syndrome.

Oral lesions called kopecks sporse are seen in patients with

measles

What skin lesion is measles described as?

Maculopapular.

What is true about chickenpox?

transmitted by droplet contract lesion distribution is centripetal has an incubation of 10-20 days has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops

All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except _________.

It is transmitted by direct contact with the rash.

What is another name for measles?

Rubeola.

What disease crosses the placenta and can cause damage?

Rubella.

What type of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?

Cutaneous.

Which of the following is mismatched regarding tinea?

Tinea wapitis-ringworm of the beard.

What is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?

Malassezia.

What provides the eye its best defense against microorganisms?

Tears.

What is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?

It has a clear discharge.

What virus is used for the smallpox vaccine?

Vaccinia.

Cerebrospinal fluid is found in which space?

Subarachnoid space.

Which neuroglia has phagocytic capabilities?

Microglial cells.

What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain?

Blood-brain barrier.

What is true about the normal biota of the CNS?

The CNS has no normal flora.

What is a sign of meningitis?

headache stiff neck WBc in cerebrospinal fluid fever

Where do meningococci initially colonize?

Nasopharynx.

How is Neisseria meningitides transmitted?

Close contact.

What is associated with the virulence of Haemophilus influenzae type b?

Capsule.

Which organism commonly causes meningitis in AIDS patients?

Cryptococcus neoformans.

What type of organism is Cryptococcus neoformans?

Fungi.

Agriculture workers and field archaeologist are exposed to this organism which although entering via the respiratory tract can cause meningitis

Coccidioides immitis.

What is the most common viral cause of meningitis?

Enterovirus.

How is neonatal meningitis most commonly transmitted?

Exposure in the birth canal.

Which organism is responsible for most neonatal meningitis cases?

Streptococcus agalactiae.

What is encephalitis most commonly caused by?

Virus.

What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?

Cat.

What are spongiform encephalopathies associated with?

Abnormal transmissible protein in the brain.

Which statement about rabies is incorrect?

Average incubation in humans is 1 week.

Where does the polio virus initially multiply?

Oropharynx and intestine.

Production of a neurotoxin that binds to a target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of

Clostridium tetani.