anesthesia final quizlet

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Last updated 4:17 PM on 4/30/23
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96 Terms

1
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What are some unacceptable methods of euthanasia?
-an animal experiencing any form of pain before it is unconscious
-consider what happens to the carcass (don't give cardiotoxic drugs if that animal is being fed to another animal)
2
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Is euthanasia safe for handlers?
not necessarily; it comes with a lot of risks
3
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What should you do if a worker doesn't want to do euthanasia, especially in the case of healthy animals somewhere like a shelter setting?
honor their wishes if possible
4
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Are fetuses conscious in the womb?
no
5
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What is bad about inhaled anesthetics for euthanasia?
-expense
-require a lot of anesthetic
-risking personnel exposure
6
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What is characteristic of stage B1 of cardiovascular disease?
a murmur, no past or present clinical signs of heart enlargement or failure
7
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Does liver disease predispose a patient to hypoalbuminemia?
yes
8
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What induction agent is good for patients with adrenal disease?
don't use etomiodate?
9
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Which blood value is low for a patient about to have a c-section?
hematocrit
10
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What happens when you put a c-section patient in dorsal?
blood pressure will drop because of pressure on the caudal vena cava and aorta
11
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What is not an appropriate way to stimulate breathing in neonates?
slinging them
12
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Why should you tilt the head down in patients with a diaphragmatic hernia?
we don't want more abdominal contents to end up in the thorax
13
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What happens in chronic diaphragmatic hernia cases when we try to re-inflate the lung?
reexpansion pulmonary edema
14
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Why do GDV patients have shortness of breath?
the pressure of their stomach pushing on the diaphragm
15
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What is the formula for blood volume of a dog?
90 ml/kg
16
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How can you avoid anesthesia machine misuse?
-get proper training
-familiarize yourself with machines
-do a leak test/correctly set up machine
-do regular maintenance
17
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What does a leak test tell you?
If you have assembled the machine correctly
18
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What are some signs of hypercapnia?
decreased PaO2, tachycardia
19
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What could you cause with a closed pop off valve?
pneumothorax and pnuemomedistinum
20
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What drugs treat bradycardia?
anticholinergics
21
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What can cause ET tube blockage?
mucus, kinks in the tube
22
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What does fasting a horse prior to anesthesia accomplish?
decreases pressure on the major abdominal vessels with less cranial displacement of the diaphragm
23
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What could regurgitation cause?
aspiration pneumonia
24
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What drug for muscle relaxation?
midazolam
25
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Do you titrate to induce horses?
no; give the whole dose as a bolus
26
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What CRI do you want to stop 30 minutes prior to ending surgery?
lidocaine
27
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What are the components of trip drip?
guaifenesin, ketamine, and xylazine
28
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What is a sign of decreased anesthetic depth in horses?
nystagmus
29
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Can horses have a palpebral reflex under anesthesia?
yes
30
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What value do we need to keep the MAP above in horses?
70 mm Hg
31
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Is regurgitation common in ruminants under anesthesia?
yes
32
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What drug is associated with penile prolapse in bulls and should be avoided?
acepromazine
33
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What can guaifenesin greater than 5% cause?
can lead to hemolysis
34
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Are pigs easy to intubate?
no
35
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What are common causes of malignant hyperthermia?
-genetic mutation that might be present
-pietran, landrace, spotted, large white, hampshire, and poland-china breeds
-can be induced by stress and injectable and/or inhalant anesthetics
36
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What are the clinical signs of malignant hyperthermia?
-muscle rigidity
-rapid rise in temperature
-hypercapnia
-hyperkalemia
-death
37
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*review calculations*

38
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Which of the following statements regarding physical examination findings is incorrect?
A dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9.
39
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What describes a stuporous state?
sleeplike state, only aroused by painful stimuli
40
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What describes a patient that is 8-10% dehydrated?
5-10 second skin tent, dry MM, 2-3 second CRT
41
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What does a high PCV mean?
dehydration
42
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*review ASA status definitions*

43
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What fluid type should be used for moderate dehydration?
isotonic crystalloids
44
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Which of the following statements regarding electrolyte
composition of fluids is incorrect?
Intravascular fluid has more negatively charged particles than positively charged particles.
45
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Which of the following general guidelines about body fluids in a normal adult animal is incorrect?
About 40% of the body weight is water.
46
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Regarding fluid infusion rates, which of the following is TRUE:
Surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids.
47
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Local anesthetic agents work because:
They interfere with the movement of sodium ions
48
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When a local anesthetic is injected around a single major nerve, the procedure is referred to as a(n):
infiltration nerve blocking
49
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Local anesthetics block transmission of nerve impulses from:
Sensory, motor, and autonomic neurons
50
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What local anesthetic has the shortest duration?
lidocaine
51
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What local anesthetic can also be used IV?
lidocaine
52
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What block would need to be used for a radial/ulnar fracture?
brachial plexus block
53
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What block would we use for a TPLO procedure?
lumbosacral epidural
54
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For intercostal blocks, what aspect of the rib do you walk the needle off?
the caudal aspect
55
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What can high doses of opioids cause?
bradycardia and respiratory depression
56
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How would you treat severe bradycardia caused by dexmetitomidine?
atipamizole
57
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How are opioids reveresed?
naloxone
58
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Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:
titrate this drug in several boluses
59
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What are examples of dissociatvies?
ketamine and telazol
60
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Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include:
Increased blood pressure, increased heart rate, increased CSF pressured, and increased intraocular pressure
61
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What is are examples of alpha 2 agonists?
dexmeditomidine, xylazine, and detomidine
62
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Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include:
muscle relaxation and minimal effect on the cardiovascular system
63
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An ovariohysterectomy, which involves surgically incis- ing the skin and abdominal wall and excising the uterus and ovaries, has what components of pain:
somatic and visceral
64
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The process by which thermal, mechanical, or chemical noxious stimuli are converted into electrical signals called action potentials is:
transduction
65
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In the spinal cord, pain impulses can be altered by neurons that either suppress or amplify nerve impulses. This process is known as:
modulation
66
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Which of the following statements regarding multimodal analgesic therapy is true?
The dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used.
67
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True or False: A pain scale can be used to assess pain as well as response to analgesic therapy.
true
68
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Which of the following drug combinations is an example of multimodal analgesic therapy?
dexmetitomidine, xylazine, and ketamine
69
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What is the correct order of the pain pathway?
transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception
70
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What does low solubility in an anesthetic drug mean?
it results in rapid changes in depth and fast recovery
71
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What are some side effects of inhalant anesthetics?
-dose related CNS depression
-hypothermia
-paddling, vocalizing, etc. during recovery (emergence delirium)
-variations in heart rate
-vasodilation (hypotension)
-decreased cardiac output
-decreased tissue perfusion
-hypoventilation, hypercarbia, respiratory arrest
72
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Which of the following has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?
sevoflourine
73
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*know the location of arytenoid cartilages based a picture*

74
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Which of the following statements concerning endotracheal intubation is false?
Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space.
75
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What complications can arise if the ET tube is too small where a seal can't be created?
-difficulty maintaining anesthetic depth
-pollution of workplace with anesthetic gas
-aspiration of stomach contents
76
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What reflex should we wait for before extubating?
swallowing
77
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What is considered hyptension in small animals?
below 60 mm Hg
78
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What is considered hypoxemia?
below 80 mm Hg
79
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What does a pulse oximeter measure?
Estimates oxygen/hemoglobin saturation
80
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What is the normal ETCO2 range?
35-45 mmHg
81
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*know how to calculate the paper speed for ECG*

82
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Which arrhythmia is a prolonged P-R interval with no missing QRS complexes?
first degree AV block
83
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Which arrhythmia is a wide, fast, bizzare QRS complex?
ventricular tachycardia
84
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What drug do we use to treat v tach?
lidocaine
85
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The vaporizer is located in what pressure zone?
low pressure zone
86
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How do you determine whether or not to use a rebreathing or non-rebreathing system for your patient?
weight-
87
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Where is the tip of the laryngoscope placed during intubation?
the base of the epiglottis
88
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In what order does O2 flow through the anesthesia machine?
compressed gas supply-\> flowmeter-\>vaporizer -\>patient-\> CO2 absorber-\>scavenge system
89
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What indicates the amount of gas flow to the vaporizer and common gas outlet?
flowmeter
90
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What do unidirectional valves do?
they control the direction of gas flow through the rebreathing circuit as the patient breathes
91
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What does the pop-off valve do?
allows excess carrier and anesthetic gases to exit from the breathing system and enter the scavenging system
92
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The pressure manometer on the machine shouldn't excess what in small animals?
20 cm H20
93
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*know how to calculate E tank pressure in L and how many hours would be left*

94
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When should you not push the oxygen flush valve?
never while a patient is attached to the machine
95
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What does sodasorb do?
absorb CO2
96
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*be able to identify parts of an anesthesia machine from pictures*

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