anesthesia final quizlet

What are some unacceptable methods of euthanasia?

What are some unacceptable methods of euthanasia?

-an animal experiencing any form of pain before it is unconscious -consider what happens to the carcass (don't give cardiotoxic drugs if that animal is being fed to another animal)

Is euthanasia safe for handlers?

not necessarily; it comes with a lot of risks

What should you do if a worker doesn't want to do euthanasia, especially in the case of healthy animals somewhere like a shelter setting?

honor their wishes if possible

Are fetuses conscious in the womb?

no

What is bad about inhaled anesthetics for euthanasia?

-expense -require a lot of anesthetic -risking personnel exposure

What is characteristic of stage B1 of cardiovascular disease?

a murmur, no past or present clinical signs of heart enlargement or failure

Does liver disease predispose a patient to hypoalbuminemia?

yes

What induction agent is good for patients with adrenal disease?

don't use etomiodate?

Which blood value is low for a patient about to have a c-section?

hematocrit

What happens when you put a c-section patient in dorsal?

blood pressure will drop because of pressure on the caudal vena cava and aorta

What is not an appropriate way to stimulate breathing in neonates?

slinging them

Why should you tilt the head down in patients with a diaphragmatic hernia?

we don't want more abdominal contents to end up in the thorax

What happens in chronic diaphragmatic hernia cases when we try to re-inflate the lung?

reexpansion pulmonary edema

Why do GDV patients have shortness of breath?

the pressure of their stomach pushing on the diaphragm

What is the formula for blood volume of a dog?

90 ml/kg

How can you avoid anesthesia machine misuse?

-get proper training -familiarize yourself with machines -do a leak test/correctly set up machine -do regular maintenance

What does a leak test tell you?

If you have assembled the machine correctly

What are some signs of hypercapnia?

decreased PaO2, tachycardia

What could you cause with a closed pop off valve?

pneumothorax and pnuemomedistinum

What drugs treat bradycardia?

anticholinergics

What can cause ET tube blockage?

mucus, kinks in the tube

What does fasting a horse prior to anesthesia accomplish?

decreases pressure on the major abdominal vessels with less cranial displacement of the diaphragm

What could regurgitation cause?

aspiration pneumonia

What drug for muscle relaxation?

midazolam

Do you titrate to induce horses?

no; give the whole dose as a bolus

What CRI do you want to stop 30 minutes prior to ending surgery?

lidocaine

What are the components of trip drip?

guaifenesin, ketamine, and xylazine

What is a sign of decreased anesthetic depth in horses?

nystagmus

Can horses have a palpebral reflex under anesthesia?

yes

What value do we need to keep the MAP above in horses?

70 mm Hg

Is regurgitation common in ruminants under anesthesia?

yes

What drug is associated with penile prolapse in bulls and should be avoided?

acepromazine

What can guaifenesin greater than 5% cause?

can lead to hemolysis

Are pigs easy to intubate?

no

What are common causes of malignant hyperthermia?

-genetic mutation that might be present -pietran, landrace, spotted, large white, hampshire, and poland-china breeds -can be induced by stress and injectable and/or inhalant anesthetics

What are the clinical signs of malignant hyperthermia?

-muscle rigidity -rapid rise in temperature -hypercapnia -hyperkalemia -death

review calculations

Which of the following statements regarding physical examination findings is incorrect?

A dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9.

What describes a stuporous state?

sleeplike state, only aroused by painful stimuli

What describes a patient that is 8-10% dehydrated?

5-10 second skin tent, dry MM, 2-3 second CRT

What does a high PCV mean?

dehydration

review ASA status definitions

What fluid type should be used for moderate dehydration?

isotonic crystalloids

Which of the following statements regarding electrolyte composition of fluids is incorrect?

Intravascular fluid has more negatively charged particles than positively charged particles.

Which of the following general guidelines about body fluids in a normal adult animal is incorrect?

About 40% of the body weight is water.

Regarding fluid infusion rates, which of the following is TRUE:

Surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids.

Local anesthetic agents work because:

They interfere with the movement of sodium ions

When a local anesthetic is injected around a single major nerve, the procedure is referred to as a(n):

infiltration nerve blocking

Local anesthetics block transmission of nerve impulses from:

Sensory, motor, and autonomic neurons

What local anesthetic has the shortest duration?

lidocaine

What local anesthetic can also be used IV?

lidocaine

What block would need to be used for a radial/ulnar fracture?

brachial plexus block

What block would we use for a TPLO procedure?

lumbosacral epidural

For intercostal blocks, what aspect of the rib do you walk the needle off?

the caudal aspect

What can high doses of opioids cause?

bradycardia and respiratory depression

How would you treat severe bradycardia caused by dexmetitomidine?

atipamizole

How are opioids reveresed?

naloxone

Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:

titrate this drug in several boluses

What are examples of dissociatvies?

ketamine and telazol

Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include:

Increased blood pressure, increased heart rate, increased CSF pressured, and increased intraocular pressure

What is are examples of alpha 2 agonists?

dexmeditomidine, xylazine, and detomidine

Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include:

muscle relaxation and minimal effect on the cardiovascular system

An ovariohysterectomy, which involves surgically incis- ing the skin and abdominal wall and excising the uterus and ovaries, has what components of pain:

somatic and visceral

The process by which thermal, mechanical, or chemical noxious stimuli are converted into electrical signals called action potentials is:

transduction

In the spinal cord, pain impulses can be altered by neurons that either suppress or amplify nerve impulses. This process is known as:

modulation

Which of the following statements regarding multimodal analgesic therapy is true?

The dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used.

True or False: A pain scale can be used to assess pain as well as response to analgesic therapy.

true

Which of the following drug combinations is an example of multimodal analgesic therapy?

dexmetitomidine, xylazine, and ketamine

What is the correct order of the pain pathway?

transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception

What does low solubility in an anesthetic drug mean?

it results in rapid changes in depth and fast recovery

What are some side effects of inhalant anesthetics?

-dose related CNS depression -hypothermia -paddling, vocalizing, etc. during recovery (emergence delirium) -variations in heart rate -vasodilation (hypotension) -decreased cardiac output -decreased tissue perfusion -hypoventilation, hypercarbia, respiratory arrest

Which of the following has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?

sevoflourine

know the location of arytenoid cartilages based a picture

Which of the following statements concerning endotracheal intubation is false?

Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space.

What complications can arise if the ET tube is too small where a seal can't be created?

-difficulty maintaining anesthetic depth -pollution of workplace with anesthetic gas -aspiration of stomach contents

What reflex should we wait for before extubating?

swallowing

What is considered hyptension in small animals?

below 60 mm Hg

What is considered hypoxemia?

below 80 mm Hg

What does a pulse oximeter measure?

Estimates oxygen/hemoglobin saturation

What is the normal ETCO2 range?

35-45 mmHg

know how to calculate the paper speed for ECG

Which arrhythmia is a prolonged P-R interval with no missing QRS complexes?

first degree AV block

Which arrhythmia is a wide, fast, bizzare QRS complex?

ventricular tachycardia

What drug do we use to treat v tach?

lidocaine

The vaporizer is located in what pressure zone?

low pressure zone

How do you determine whether or not to use a rebreathing or non-rebreathing system for your patient?

weight- <5 kgs needs non-rebreathing

Where is the tip of the laryngoscope placed during intubation?

the base of the epiglottis

In what order does O2 flow through the anesthesia machine?

compressed gas supply-> flowmeter->vaporizer ->patient-> CO2 absorber->scavenge system

What indicates the amount of gas flow to the vaporizer and common gas outlet?

flowmeter

What do unidirectional valves do?

they control the direction of gas flow through the rebreathing circuit as the patient breathes

What does the pop-off valve do?

allows excess carrier and anesthetic gases to exit from the breathing system and enter the scavenging system

The pressure manometer on the machine shouldn't excess what in small animals?

20 cm H20

know how to calculate E tank pressure in L and how many hours would be left

When should you not push the oxygen flush valve?

never while a patient is attached to the machine

What does sodasorb do?

absorb CO2

be able to identify parts of an anesthesia machine from pictures