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The development of which characteristic is the first sign of puberty in females?
a. Menarche
b. Pubic hair
c. Thelarche
d. Dysmenorrhea
c
Which term describes painful menstruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles?
a. Primary dysmenorrhea
b. Primary amenorrhea
c. Secondary dysmenorrhea
d. Secondary amenorrhea
a
Which condition must be ruled out when identifying the cause of secondary amenorrhea?
a. Abnormal thyroid function
b. Irregular prolactin production
c. Pituitary gland dysfunction
d. Pregnancy
d
A 24-year-old female presents with severe abdominal pain and fever that is believed to be a result of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) stemming from a Chlamydia trachomatis infection. Which question will most likely identify the cause of her symptoms?
a. “Is your abdominal pain affected by walking?”
b. “Have you been experiencing nausea and vomiting as well?”
c. “Is constipation a problem for you?”
d. “Would you describe your pain as being stabbing?
a
A patient presents with an inflammation of one of the ducts that lead from the introitus. What is the appropriate term for this condition?
a. Vaginitis
b. Cervicitis
c. Bartholinitis
d. Vulvovestibulitis
c
A patient has been diagnosed with a moderately large cystocele. What information would the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
a. Isometric exercises will help strengthen the pubococcygeal muscles.
b. The symptoms will increase during menstruation.
c. The condition causes urinary stress incontinence.
d. This condition contributes to chronic constipation.
a
Which female is at greatest risk for developing a benign ovarian cyst?
a. A 26-year-old with regular menstrual cycle
b. A 48-year-old diagnosed as premenopausal
c. A 13-year-old experiencing delayed puberty
d. A 70-year-old diagnosed with a cystocele
b
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized by the presence of which of the following?
a. Amenorrhea
b. Hypotension
c. Low cholesterol level
d. Hypoandrogenism
a
Which statement is TRUE regarding breast cancer?
a. The older the age at a woman’s first childbirth, the lower the risk.
b. It is the second most common cause of cancer in women.
c. The mortality has declined.
d. Exercise may reduce the risk.
d
Which is the most important difference between proliferative and nonproliferative breast tissue changes?
a. Genetic aberrations are more common in nonproliferative lesions.
b. Cancer prognosis is better for nonproliferative breast tissue changes.
c. Nonproliferative breast lesions do not increase the risk of breast cancer.
d. Cancer resulting from nonproliferative breast lesions has a higher cure rate.
c
Which of the following is the most likely cause of galactorrhea in women?
a. Pregnancy
b. Estrogen administration
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Pituitary tumour
d
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for vaginal cancer?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometriosis
c. Concurrent breast cancer
d. Birth control pills
a
What pathology is the Pap (Papanicolaou smear) test designed to evaluate?
a. Vaginal infection
b. Breast cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Endometrial cancer
c
When ruling out endometrial cancer, the patient should be informed that:
a. symptomatology is evaluated as the basis for diagnosis.
b. a uterine lining depth of less than 8 mm rules out this diagnosis.
c. she will be scheduled for a biopsy of the endometrial tissue.
d. the use of combined hormonal contraception is a risk factor for this pathology.
c
A patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Which conditions are associated with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hirsutism
b. Amenorrhea
c. Obesity
d. Infertility
e. Endometriosis
a,b,c,d
Which statements should be included in information regarding uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Most common in white women
b. Occurs prior to age 40
c. Decreases with menopause
d. Develops from smooth muscle
e. Generally asymptomatic
c,d,e
Which of the following genes have been linked with the development of breast cancer? (Select all that apply.)
a. BRCA1
b. BRCA2
c. TP3
d. PSA
e. HER2+
a,b,c,e
Which occurrences are believed to reduce the risk for developing ovarian cancer? (Select all that apply.)
a. Pregnancy
b. Early menopause
c. Breastfeeding
d. Combined hormonal contraception
e. Partial hysterectomy
a,c,d
3. The ophthalmologist is teaching about the structure of the eye that prevents light from scattering in the eye. What structure is the ophthalmologist describing?
a. Iris
b. Pupil
c. Choroid
d. Retina
c
3. A 50-year-old diabetic patient experiences visual disturbances and decides to visit his primary care provider. After examination, the primary care provider tells the patient that the cells that allow him to see are degenerated. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
a. Lens
b. Pupil
c. Cornea
d. Retina
d
3. A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye deviation. One of the child’s eyes deviates inward, thereby decreasing the visual field. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
a.Entropia
b. Extropia
c. Diplopia
d. Nystagmus
a
3. A patient has increased intraocular pressure. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?
a. Glaucoma
b. Ocular degeneration
c. Diplopia
d. Nystagmus
a
3. A 70-year-old patient presents to the primary care provider reporting loss of vision. A history that includes hypertension and cigarette smoking supports which visual diagnosis?
a. Presbyopia
b. Macular degeneration
c. Strabismus
d. Amblyopia
b
3. Which group of people is most prone to color blindness?
a. Males
b. Females
c. Elderly persons
d. Children
a
3. A nurse is teaching about the structure that connects the middle ear with the pharynx. Which structure is the nurse describing?
a. Organ of Corti
b. Eustachian tube
c. Semicircular canal
d. Auditory canal
b
31. The most common form of sensorineural hearing loss in the elderly is:
a. conductive hearing loss.
b. acute otitis media.
c. presbycusis.
d. Ménière disease.
c
31. A 15-year-old is diagnosed with an outer ear infection. Which of the following is most likely to cause this infection?
a. Haemophilus
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Escherichia coli
d
31. The nurse would expect the patient with an alteration in proprioception to experience vertigo, which is manifested by:
a. headache.
b. light sensitivity.
c. a sensation that the room is spinning.
d. loss of feeling in the lips.
c
31. Which system modulates a patient’s perception of pain?
a. Sensory-discriminative system
b. Affective-motivational system
c. Cognitive-evaluative system
d. Reticular-activating system
c
Involuntary unilateral or bilateral rhythmic movement of the eyes is referred to as which of the following?
Nystagmus
Amblyopia
Glaucoma
Strabismus
a
A young child presents with redness of the eyes. The parents indicate that this condition seems to be “going around” the daycare. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Blepharitis
Keratitis
Trachoma
Conjunctivitis
d
Which type of hearing loss is a result of foreign body obstruction of the middle ear?
Conductive
Sensorineural
Functional
Presbycusis
a
A patient who reports that “everything tastes unpleasant” is exhibiting symptoms of which of the following?
Hyposmia
Anosmia
Hypogeusia
Dysgeusia
d
Endogenous opioids include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Enkephalins
Endorphins
Dynorphins
Endomorphins
Denkephalins
a,b,c,d
A male patient presents with inflammation of the glans penis. Which term correctly describes this condition?
a. Phimosis
b. Paraphimosis
c. Priapism
d. Balanitis
d
A male patient, diagnosed with a scrotal disorder, describes the resulting feeling like a “bag of worms in there.” Which condition is supported by the patient’s statement?
a. Varicocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Spermatocele
d. Cryptorchidism
a
A young adult male is diagnosed with orchitis after reporting pain in his testes. Which assessment question demonstrates an understanding of the etiology of this condition?
a. “Have you ever had the mumps?”
b. “Are you prone to prolonged erections?”
c. “Has your sperm count ever been tested?”
d. “Have you ever been diagnosed with candidiasis?”
a
Which statement regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is TRUE?
a. Ten percent of men will have it by age 90 years.
b. Being underweight is a risk factor.
c. It is more common in white men.
d. It may be problematic if urethral compression occurs.
d
A young adult reports an abnormal curvature of his penis that has existed since puberty but is getting worse and that intercourse is painful. The patient’s statement supports which diagnosis?
a. Peyronie disease
b. Orchitis
c. Phimosis
d. Paraphimosis
a
A sexually active male reports unilateral pain in his scrotum. Assessment findings include a red and swollen, tender area on his scrotum. Which diagnosis is supported by this data?
a. Balanitis
b. Paraphimosis
c. Epididymitis
d. Benign prostate hypertrophy
c
Which reason is the primary contributor to the continued spread of sexually transmitted infections?
a. Reluctance to identify sexual partners
b. Fear of being held legally responsive
c. People unaware they are infected
d. Failure of health care providers to notify authorities
c
Which statement is true regarding gynecomastia in men?
a. It may begin as a palpable mass anywhere on the chest.
b. It affects less than 3% of the male population.
c. Incidence is greatest among adolescents and men over 50.
d. It generally indicates cancer.
c
Which are possible causes of prostate cancer? (Select all that apply.)
a. Previous vasectomy
b. Reduced levels of 5α-dihydrotestosterone
c. High exposure to ultraviolet light rays
d. Chronic prostatic inflammation
e. Genetic predisposition
a,b,d,e
Which are frequent sites for distant metastasis for prostate cancer? (Select all that apply.)
a. Brain
b. Lymph nodes
c. Liver
d. Bones
e. Lungs
b,c,d,e
Which form of anemia is caused by altered heme synthesis in erythroid cells?
a. Iron deficiency
b. Microcytic-hypochromic
c. Sideroblastic
d. Megaloblastic
c
Which term refers to an abnormally high production of red blood cells?
a. Anemia
b. Hemolytic crisis
c. Polycythemia
d. Apoferritin
c
.
Which of the following statements regarding infectious mononucleosis (IM) is true?
a. It is characterized by granulocytosis.
b. It is commonly caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
c. It is prevalent in older adults.
d. It is caused by the poxvirus family.
b
Which form of leukemia is the most common in children?
a. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
b. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
d. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
a
Which of the following statement regarding lymphoma is true?
a. It is a malignancy occurring in the bone marrow.
b. It is the result of injury to the RNA of a lymphocyte.
c. It is identified by palpable, tender lymph nodes.
d. It is the second most common cause of cancer death.
c
Which statement regarding Hodgkin’s lymphoma is true?
a. Peak incidence occurs in the early 20s through the 30s and then later in life.
b. It is diagnosed most often in the black population.
c. Incidence is increased in economically disadvantaged countries.
d. It is characterized by an increase in plasma cells.
a
Which of the following statements regarding endemic Burkitt lymphoma is true?
a. It is a type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
b. It is rarely diagnosed in Canada.
c. It is often observed as a tumour of the jaw.
d. It is associated with HIV infection.
c
The most common source of drug-induced thrombocytopenia is which of the following?
a. Heparin
b. Thiazides
c. Estrogens
d. Ethanol
a
Which statement regarding immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is true?
a. It is more common in females.
b. Adolescents have a higher incidence.
c. Massive bleeding from the nose and mouth occurs.
d. Initial platelet counts may be as low as 10 × 109/L.
a
.
Which statement regarding iron deficiency anemia is true?
a. White people are more commonly affected.
b. Incidence is most common in those children older than 2 years.
c. It is common in children due to their extremely high need for iron for normal growth.
d. There is decreased risk in children who live in poverty.
c
Which statement regarding iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is true?
a. Agitation is a common symptom observed in older adults.
b. Fatigue is an early, nonspecific symptom.
c. The condition develops rapidly.
d. Patients typically seek treatment when hemoglobin drops to below 60 g/L.
b
Which of the following is true regarding pernicious anemia?
a. It results from an increased production of intrinsic factor.
b. It is associated with end-stage type A chronic atrophic gastritis.
c. It is caused by a viral infection.
d. It is generally diagnosed by age 16 years.
b
Microcytic-hypochromic anemia is known to be a result of disorders involving which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Iron metabolism
b. Porphyrin synthesis
c. Globin synthesis
d. Vitamin B12 absorption
e. Heme production
a,b,c,d,e
Neutropenia is believed to be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decreased production of neutrophils
b. Increased turnover of neutrophils
c. Abnormal distribution of neutrophils
d. Increased tendency to store vitamins
e. Reaction to an overwhelming infection
a,b,c,e
Which condition is a known cause of eosinophilia? (Select all that apply.)
a. Asthma
b. Prolonged infection
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Eczema
e. Poor protein intake
a,c,d
The known causes of lymphadenopathy includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Neoplastic disease
b. Inflammatory condition
c. Lipid storage disease
d. Cardiac disease
e. Immunological disorders
a,b,c,e
Which condition is one of the current criteria for presence of an overactive spleen? (Select all that apply.)
a. Anemia
b. Sequestering of red blood cells
c. Splenomegaly
d. Leukocytosis
e. Thrombocytopenia
a,b,c,e
Which of the following statements is true regarding both acquired and familiar forms of acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)? (Select all that apply.)
a. It is caused by platelet aggregates.
b. It is more common in females.
c. It is most commonly seen in infants.
d. The incidence is increasing.
e. It is seldom life-threatening.
a,b,d
Which situation is a characteristic of the Virchow triad? (Select all that apply.)
a. Injury to endothelium
b. Abnormalities of blood flow
c. Hypercoagulability of the blood
d. Decreased clotting factors
e. Impaired vitamin A absorption
a,b,c
Which description appropriately defines the term anemia?
a. Increased white blood cell size
b. Increased erythrocyte number in circulating blood
c. Decreased erythrocytes in circulating blood
d. Decreased circulating platelets
c
What is the primary function of albumin as a component of human blood?
a. It creates a fibrin clot as a part of the clotting cascade.
b. It regulates the movement of water and solutes via osmotic pressure.
c. It serves as an aqueous medium for organic materials.
d. It generates intravascular pressure to circulate blood.
b
The primary function of erythrocyte is which of the following?
a. Protecting the body from bacterial infection
b. Controlling vascular bleeding through clotting
c. Carrying oxygen attached to its hemoglobin
d. Warming the body to prevent hypothermia
c
Platelets are essential in what physiological process?
a. Phagocytosis
b. Blood coagulation
c. Cell oxygenation
d. Removal of cellular waste
b
The primary function of hemoglobin’s is to do which of the following?
a. Initiate a method to control excessive bleeding
b. Stimulate the production of blood cells
c. Carry oxygen from the lungs to the tissues
d. Begin the process of inflammation
c
Which of the following statements regarding folate are TRUE? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decreased folate absorption may lead to pernicious anemia.
b. Pregnant women require more folate.
c. Folate is stored in the liver.
d. Absorption of folate takes place in the stomach.
e. Folate is necessary for DNA synthesis.
a,b,c,e
Which function is recognized as the purpose of the continuous circulation of blood? (Select all that apply.)
a. Defending against invading infections
b. Maintaining acid–base balance
c. Prevention of cellular breakdown
d. Supporting cellular metabolism
e. Removal of cellular waste products
a,b,d,e
Which of the following statements regarding leukocytes are TRUE? (Select all that apply.)
a. Leukocytes are involved in the removal of debris, including dead or injured cells.
b. Most adults have on average 10-25 × 109/L.
c. Leukocytes are located in both tissue and circulating blood.
d. Leukocytes may be either a granulocyte or an agranulocyte.
e. Neutrophils are the most numerous and best understood leukocyte.
a,c,d
Which of the following statements about neutrophils are TRUE? (Select all that apply.)
a. Bacterial invasion causes them to migrate into the capillary system.
b. They bring about the process of inflammation.
c. Life span once in contact with damaged tissue is 7 days.
d. Their death results in the release of digestive enzymes.
e. They are responsible for initial phagocytosis.
b,d,e
Which of the following statements are TRUE concerning the spleen? (Select all that apply.)
a. It serves as a reservoir for blood.
b. The location is in the left upper abdomen.
c. A functioning spleen is necessary for a healthy existence.
d. Its lymphocytes combat blood-borne pathogens through an immune response.
e. This lymphoid organ is normally the size of walnut.
a,b,d
Which statements correctly describes hematopoiesis? (Select all that apply.)
a. The human body’s need for 100 billion new blood cells per day is supplied.
b. Mitotic division of undifferentiated cells into blood cells occurs.
c. It occurs primarily in the liver and spleen of adult humans.
d. Production is increased when the body experiences a chronic infection.
e. Hemolytic anemia would cause a decrease in the hematopoietic process.
a,b,d
Which of the following statements regarding arteriosclerosis is TRUE?
a. It is an acute process of heart muscle degeneration.
b. It causes thickening and hardening of the vessel wall.
c. Plaque is caused by accumulation of hormones.
d. It produces fatty streaks and foam cells that are identical.
b
A patient experiences a rapidly progressive hypertension with a diastolic pressure of 146 mm Hg. Which is the BEST term for this condition?
a. Primary hypertension
b. Secondary hypertension
c. Complicated hypertension
d. Malignant hypertension
d
.
Which of the following conditions describes when blood has pooled, producing distended and palpable vessels?
a. Thrombus
b. Venous stasis ulcers
c. Varicose veins
d. Deep vein thrombosis
c
Which complication occurs secondary to hypertension?
a. Cardiovascular muscle atrophy
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Heart failure
d. Decreased demand for coronary perfusion
c
Which term describes the occlusion of a blood vessel from a bolus of circulating matter in the bloodstream?
a. Thrombus
b. Embolus
c. Thrombophlebitis
d. Foam cell
b
A young woman presents with pallor, numbness, and a sensation of cold temperature of her digits. Which condition is the most likely cause for these symptoms?
a. Raynaud’s phenomenon
b. Thromboangiitis obliterans
c. Peripheral vascular disease
d. Varicose veins
a
Which conditions are associated with dyslipidemia?
a. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) triglycerides and fat packages
b. Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) triglycerides and proteins
c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) phospholipids and proteins
d. Chylomicrons triglycerides and phospholipids
b
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the impact of cigarette smoke?
a. It causes a decreased low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b. It causes an increased high-density lipoprotein (HDL).
c. It causes an increased cardiac workload.
d. It causes a decreased inflammatory state.
c
A patient presents with chest pain that occurs at rest. Abnormal vasospasm of the coronary arteries is detected. Which is the most likely cause of the chest pain?
a. Stable angina
b. Prinzmetal angina
c. Silent ischemia
d. Angina pectoris
b
Which statement regarding cellular injury of the myocardium is correct?
a. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions for about 40 minutes.
b. ECG changes are visible after approximately 120 seconds.
c. Myocardial cells remain viable if blood flow returns within 20 minutes.
d. After 20 seconds of decreased blood flow, myocardial cells become cooler.
c
Which is the MOST common complication of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
a. Dressler syndrome
b. Dysrhythmia
c. Pericarditis
d. Heart failure
b
A 23-year-old patient recovering from a recent viral infection presents with severe chest pain that worsens with respiratory movements and with lying down. The patient has a low-grade temperature and a heart rate of 100 beats/min. Which is the most appropriate intervention for this condition?
a. Administer analgesics
b. Percutaneous coronary intervention
c. Total bed rest
d. Give beta blockers
a
A patient has been diagnosed with a pericardial effusion resulting in the presence of frank blood. Which condition is associated with a bloody effusion?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Coagulation defect
c. Neoplasm
d. Left heart failure
b
Which valvular disorder is characterized by impaired blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Mitral regurgitation
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Aortic regurgitation
a
A patient has a loud holosystolic murmur that radiates to the back and axilla. Which valvular abnormality is this describing?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Mitral regurgitation
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Aortic regurgitation
b
A patient has rheumatic fever. Which part of the heart is most commonly affected?
a. Aortic valve
b. Myocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Endocardium
d
A patient is diagnosed with inflammation of the endocardium due to Staphylococcus aureus. Which is the most likely medical diagnosis?
a. Infective endocarditis
b. Pericardial effusion
c. Chronic pericarditis
d. Cardiomyopathy
a
A patient experiences spinal cord damage following a motorcycle accident. Which type of shock would most likely result?
a. Hypovolemic
b. Neurogenic
c. Anaphylactic
d. Septic
b
Which characteristics are associated with hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
a. Family history of hypertension
b. Asian race
c. High dietary sodium
d. Glucose intolerance
e. Obesity
a,c,d,e
Which symptoms are typically observed with the presence of an acute myocardial infarction (MI)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Cough
b. Unrelenting indigestion
c. Increased temperature
d. Chest pain
e. Cool, clammy skin
b,d,e
Which enzymes are released by damaged myocardial muscle tissue? (Select all that apply.)
a. CK-MB
b. LDH
c. AST
d. Troponin I
e. ALT
a,b,d
1. A 75-year-old obese female presents to her primary care provider reporting edema in the lower extremities. Physical exam reveals that she has varicose veins. Upon performing the history, which of the following is a possible cause for the varicose veins?
a. Extreme exercise
b. Long periods of standing
c. Trauma to the deep veins
d. Ischemia
b
1. A 52-year-old male presents with pooling of blood in the veins of the lower extremities and edema. The diagnosis is chronic venous insufficiency, and an expected assessment finding of this disorder is:
a. deep vein thrombus formation.
b. skin hyperpigmentation
c. gangrene.
d. edema above the knee.
b
Note
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