March 2023 MTLE Recalls Flashcards

Flashcards on recalled topics from the March 2023 MTLE exams, covering Clinical Microscopy, Histopathology, MT Laws, Hematology, Blood Banking, Immunology, Serology, Microbiology, Parasitology, and Clinical Chemistry.

Total magnification for grading casts

10x

Pregnancy (POCT) test kit uses what principle:

Immunochromatography

What does PASS stand for when operating fire extinguishers?

Pull pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze handles, Sweep nozzle side to side

What does RACE stand for when discovering a fire?

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate

Reference Values for Semen Analysis: Volume

2 to 5 mL

Reference Values for Semen Analysis: Sperm concentration

20 million/mL

Reference Values for Semen Analysis: Sperm count

40 million/ejaculate

Reference Values for Semen Analysis: Motility

50% within 1 h

Reference Values for Semen Analysis: Round cells

<1.0 million/mL

Liquefaction (Semen Analysis)

A fresh semen specimen is clotted and should liquefy within 30 to 60 minutes after collection

Sperm Morphology

Sperm morphology is evaluated with respect to the structure of the head, neckpiece, midpiece, and tail.

Measurement of a -glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the:

Epididymis

Kohler illumination

Type of microscopic illumination in which a lamp condenser focuses the image of the light source onto the front focal plane of the substage condenser.

Most common contamination in urine from female patients if it is NOT collected using the midstream clean-catch technique:

squamous epithelial cells

Clue Cells

Clue cells are indicative of vaginal infection by the bacterium Gardnerella vaginalis.

Cylindroids

Cylindroids have the same significance as casts.

Cast disintegration is based on?

Hypotonic and alkaline urine promotes the disintegration of casts in the urine sediment.

Protein range (mg/dL) for grade of 2+

100–200

Urine Clarity

Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear

Classic test for differentiating between urobilinogen, porphobilinogen, and Ehrlich-reactive compounds

Watson Schwartz test

First morning urine is not required in:

urine culture

Copper sulfate tests the _ ability of glucose:

reducing

Copper Reduction Test (Clinitest)

Measurement of glucose by the copper reduction method was one of the earliest chemical tests performed on urine. The test relies on the ability of glucose and other substances to reduce copper sulfate to cuprous oxide in the presence of alkali and heat.

Staghorn calculi:

hard large branching

Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:

Goodpasture syndrome

The only protein produced by the kidney is:

Uromodulin

To distinguish yeast cells from RBC:

Yeast cells usually exhibit budding.

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:

Acetic acid

NORMAL odor of urine

ammoniacal

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm indicates the presence of which analyte?

Bilirubin

Amniotic fluid is:

Amniotic fluid is a product of fetal metabolism.

Baby powder (lycopodium) crystal looks like ____ under microscope

*Talcum powder crystals are rounded with a small cross in their center.

What should be done in a refrigerated specimen with presence of pink precipitates before testing?

*Warm

Bloody CSF indicative of intracranial hemorrhage:

Even distribution of blood in all tubes

CSF collection:

3rd, 4th, 5th Lumbar

Non-invasive procedure for gastric analysis:

*Urea breath test

Positive color of Ictotest:

blue-to-purple

Fluid with low protein

Transudate

Fluid with high protein

Exudate

Which of the following parameters best identifies a fluid as a transudate or an exudate?

Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio

Tubercular peritonitis ~lab tests

Decreased glucose,
Acid-fast stain,
Adenosine deaminase

A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen indicates:

Tubercular meningitis

A CSF Total count is diluted with:

Acetic acid
WBC count

Which is considered abnormal when present in feces?

RBCs

Storage for cell blocks

Many years

Which can perform red cell antibody screening?

Blood bank

Fixatives

The aldehydes (formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde) and oxidizing agents (osmium tetroxide, potassium permanganate) act by cross-linking proteins.

Fixatives for electron microscopy:

Glutaraldehyde
Osmium tetroxide

When to perform decalcification?

AFTER fixation
BEFORE impregnation

Defining standards of performance:

Directing
Planning
Organizing
Controlling

Not a fibrocartilage:

*ligaments

Not considered as a laboratory record:

*Laboratory worksheet

Antiseptic for blood alcohol analysis should be:

non-alcohol based

What should be first secured by the owner from the DOH to operate a lab?

*Permit to construct and design

Who can perform HIV testing?

Medtech with HIV proficiency cert

Minimum requirement of lab personnel for screening drug laboratory:

analyst, head pathologist, authorized specimen collector

Who regulates the reagents being used in the laboratory?

FDA

Who cannot practice medical technology in the Philippines?

No medical technologist shall practice or offer to practice medical technology as defined in RA 5527 without having previously obtained a valid certificate of registration from the Board

Why PCR testing is done:

Amplify small amounts of DNA

Rinse hands

Rinse hands in a downward position to prevent recontamination of hands and wrists

Fibrinogen disorder

Dysfibrinogenemia

Morphologic changes occur during normal blood cell maturation

Decrease in cell size, Decrease in nuclear diameter, loss of nucleoli, condensation of nuclear chromatin, and decreased basophilia in cytoplasm

In what cell type are Niemann-Pick cells?

Macrophage

MOST affected by excessive anticoagulant

*HCT

What light source is used in vein illumination devices (like AccuVein)?

near infrared

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation

Immunoglobulin

Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying marker for T cells?

CD2

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except

Induction of an antiviral state

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis?

Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?

ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

Interpret the following results for HIV infection: ELISA: positive; repeat ELISA: negative; Western blot: no bands

Negative for HIV

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with AIDS?

1:2

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?

Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4oC

The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody?

Rarely

Which of the following is note requirement for the electronic crossmatch?

There are concordant results of at least one determination of the recipient’s ABO type on file

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type?

O-

A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37°C, and negative at the IAT phase. Identify the most likely problem.

Cold alloantibody

All of the following are reasons for performing an adsorption, except:

Confirmation of weak antigens on red cells

What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen?

Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary

When may an immediate spin crossmatch be performed?

4 year history. no fever, what diagnosis?

ANA tests are performed to help diagnose which condition:

SLE

What of recombinant vaccinations carries on deferral pertussis:

Rubberella

In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following antibodies are seen?

*Anti-smooth muscle

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is MOST often associated with this condition:

Goodpasture disease

Immunoglobulin that is most efficient at crossing the placenta:

IgG

Which test is used to evaluate the cellular immune system in a patient?

Skin test for commonly encountered antigens

If the number on the CD8 surface in the patient in high, what is the next checkup?

Immunosuppressants

Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion:

TRALI

Which of the following white blood cells is capable of further differentiation in the tissues? Stevens

Monocyte

Which of the following statements accurately describes competitive binding assays? Stevens

the concentration of patient analyte is inversely proportional to bound radioactive label.

Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37oC water baths because they prevent:

All COCCI, what is Gram positive

A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?

False-negative due to prozone

Nontremono

The following is a treponemal test:

T cells cannot be, What cellular function

AHA, HEP/AIDS/DMS

When is a patient be mass transfusion, how match, and what procedure?

Blood Banking: Calculations for collection

Which of the best of the following test in the lab:

The most common test milk quality:

Thyroxine the Largest amount

The T4 is stored when:

What about test of blood bank or immuno can came up in last exam:

Harr and BOC book - Questions March MTLE:

Samples (2) for detection of microsporidia:

Fresh, Formalin-fixed

Actinomyces

Gram-positive bacilli