Test

(M) Comply With:

• Unit Procedures (May supplement, but not contradict, procedures in this manual)

• Directives

• Information Bulletins

• Director Approval Letters (DAL)

• Information Circulars (AIC)

• Memoranda

• Agreements

• Arrangements

• Other items, as required

(W) Thirteen Radar Sources:

• QB

• CA

• BU

• DG

• ZV

• QM

• ZX

• HZ

• YR

• JT

• QX

• YT

• QY

(M) Glossary: ADS-B

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast

A means by which aircraft, aerodrome vehicles, and other objects can automatically transmit and/or receive data such as identification, position, and additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode via a data link.

(W) Equipment needed for ADS-B output:

• Functioning GPS

• Transponder

• Proper call sign entry

(W) Difference between ADS-B Out and In:

ADS-B Out can broadcast information to satellites where as ADS-B In broadcast their information to satellites AND are able to receive messages from the ground network.

(W) ADS-B provides many benefits:

• Covers 100% of globe

• Safety is enhanced as aircraft are visible in real time to ATC

• Pilots can see other aircraft around them equipped with ADS-B

• Position reports are more accurate allowing for smaller separation standards in some areas and more direct routings

• Optimal flight levels are readily available as separation standards are smaller

• Reduction in airtime reduces fuel consumption and pollution

• Emergency response for locating aircraft in distress equipped with ADS-B is improved

• ADS-B ground stations are significantly cheaper to install and operate compared to radar

(W) ADS-B Limitations:

• Intense solar activity can affect ADS-B and cause position errors

• ADS-B relies on aircraft equipment which can fail

• ADS-B satellites have a limit on how many aircraft they can track at any moment

(W) Radar Limitations:

• Range:

• Transponder:

• Weather:

• Holes:

• Range:

  • Ground based therefore it’s impossible to have radar coverage over the ocean or in hard to reach polar north regions

  • PSR range is 80N, SSR range is up to 200NM at FL390

• Transponder:

  • Aircraft are required to have back up transponder

• Weather:

  • Weather conditions can degrade the accuracy of radar

• Holes:

  • In areas without overlapping coverage if one radar source fails it may result in a radar hole

(W) Range of VHF frequencies:

Up to 200NM at FL390

(M) If an aircraft will enter another sector or unit’s airspace, initiate a handoff if any of the following apply:

• You are applying ATS surveillance separation between the concerned aircraft and another aircraft that was, is, or will be transferred

• ATS surveillance separation is normally applied in the receiving controller’s airspace

• Handoffs are specified as a standard procedure in an agreement, arrangement, or unit directive

(M) Complete a handoff before the aircraft passes any of the following:

• The sector or unit boundary

• A designated control transfer point

• Any handoff point defined in an arrangement or agreement

(M) You may use any of the following methods to identify an aircraft:

• Identification by Handoff or Point-Out

• Appropriate PPS Changes

• Flight Identification in ADS-B Data Tag

• Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

• Data Tag ACID in Adjacent Airspace

(M) You may use any of the following methods to identify an aircraft:

• Identification by Handoff or Point-Out: You may consider the aircraft identified…

After a handoff or point-out

(M) You may use any of the following methods to identify an aircraft:

• Appropriate PPS Changes: You may consider the aircraft identified when you observe an appropriate change in the PPS in any of the following situations:

• After the pilot is instructed to operate the aircraft’s transponder Ident feature

• After the pilot is instructed to change the transponder to “standby”

  • In this situation, the PPS disappears or changes to a PSR symbol. When the pilot is requested to return the transponder to normal operation, the PPS reappears or changes to an SSR symbol. Take enough time to determine that the change is a result of the pilot’s action.

(M) You may use any of the following methods to identify an aircraft:

• Flight Identification in ADS-B Data Tag: You may consider the aircraft identified…

When the flight identification element in ADS-B data tag is recognized and is consistent with the aircraft’s expected position

(M) You may use any of the following methods to identify an aircraft:

• Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display: You may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

• The aircraft’s position is both:

  • Within one mile of the departure end of the take-off runway

  • Consistent with the time of takeoff and the route of flight or assigned heading of the aircraft

• The aircraft’s position over a fix or an OMNI, and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot, and the following apply:

  • The aircraft’s track is consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft

  • The position of the fix or the OMNI and DME NAVAID is accurately indicated on the situational display

• The aircraft’s position relative a fix or an OMNI, and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot in the form of a DME or GPS report, and the following apply:

  • The aircraft’s track is consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft

  • The position of the fix or the OMNI and DME NAVAID is accurately indicated on the situational display

• The aircraft carries out a specified identifying turn of at least 30 degrees, and the following apply:

  • Except in the case of a lost aircraft, a position report received directly from the pilot indicates that the aircraft is within ATS surveillance coverage of the area being displayed

  • Only one aircraft is observed to have carried out the specified turn

  • The track is observed to be consistent with the heading or track of the aircraft both before and after completion of the turn

(M) You may use any of the following methods to identify an aircraft:

• Data Tag ACID in Adjacent Airspace: You may consider the aircraft identified by observing its data tag ACID in adjacent airspace where ATS surveillance service is normally provided and one of the following applies:

• The aircraft is observed approaching a fix and the time, position, and aircraft track are consistent with a control estimate

• You previously identified the aircraft and it has since been handed off to another sector or unit

(M) Do an automated handoff, unless either of the following applies:

• You are handing off an unlinked PPS

• A system malfunction or deficiency makes it unfeasible

(T) During a handoff, coordinate with the receiving controller as indicated in the following table:

• Situation

  • Transferring Controller Action

• _____ displayed in the data tag:

  • Immediately _____

• Invalidated _____:

  • Inform the receiving sector or unit of _____

• Aircraft’s last assigned altitude is a _____:

  • Inform the receiving sector or unit of _____

• _____ aircraft is in RVSM airspace:

  • Inform the receiving sector or unit of _____

• Aircraft has been assigned a _____:

  • Inform _____

• Altitude differs from that _____:

  • Inform the receiving sector or unit of _____

• Other _____ is available:

  • Inform _____

• “CST”

  • Coordinate with the receiving sector or unit

• altitude readout

  • The aircraft’s last assigned altitude

• wrong-way altitude

  • The aircraft’s last assigned altitude

• Non-RVSM

  • The aircraft’s RVSM status

• cruise climb

  • The receiving sector or unit

• specified in a unit directive, an agreement, or an arrangement

  • The aircraft’s last assigned altitude

• pertinent information

  • The receiving sector or unit

(M) When receiving an automated handoff, you may consider that an aircraft being handed off is identified, provided both of the following apply:

• You observe a PPS with the blinking data tag

• The geographical position and the aircraft identification in the data tag are appropriate for an aircraft that you expect to be handed off

(T) During a handoff, coordinate with the transferring controller as indicated in the following table:

• Situation

  • Receiving Controller Action

• _____ displayed in the data tag

  • _____ with the transferring controller, unless coordination was previously initiated

• Aircraft’s _____ in doubt

  • Ask the transferring controller to do any of the following:

• Aircraft’s _____ in doubt

  • Ask the transferring controller to ____

• Transferring controller has indicated a _____

  • _____ the altitude, and say _____

• Transferring controller has indicated _____

  • Acknowledge by saying _____

• Flight plan data in a tabular list _____:

  • _____ with the transferring controller

• _____ handoff

  • You may consider that the aircraft being handed off is identified, provided either of the following conditions applies:

• “CST”

  • Coordinate

• Identity

  • Point to the PPS again

  • Describe the aircraft’s position again

  • Re-identify the aircraft using another method as provided in ‘Identification’, to transfer identification

• Altitude

  • State the altitude

• Wrong way altitude

  • Read back and WRONG WAY

• “Non RVSM”

  • NEGATIVE RVSM

• Flashes

  • Coordinate

• Verbal

  • Only one PPS corresponds to the one described by the transferring controller

  • You have no doubt which PPS the transferring controller is physically pointing to

(A) Montreal ACC/Moncton ACC Arrangement: D.2.8.1

All aircraft will become the receiving sector’s control in the airspace of the initiating sector for turns to a _____, _____,and_____ when the surveillance hand-off or TOC is completed.

• Maximum of 30 degrees

• Transponder code changes

• Altitude changes

(U) Moncton ACC UOM

_____ update the CAATS flight plan once the aircraft reaches the _____ NM line indicated on CSiT for aircraft proceeding to an external unit

• DO NOT

• 30

(A) Gander/Montreal/Boston/ Moncton ACC Arrangement

Verbal coordination is required for CAATS or flight plan changes for aircraft within:

• 30 NM of common boundary (QX/UL/BW)

  • For BW speed changes must always be coordinated throughout sector even if over 30 NM from boundary

• 15 minutes of common boundary when using procedural separation (QX/UL)

• 30 minutes from JEBBY for flights entering NY oceanic airspace (NY)

(W) Factors that affect aircraft performance:

• Weight

• Fuel on board

• Fuel conservation

• Atmospheric conditions

• Operator requirements

(W) What is the difference between RNAV and RNP?

RNP includes the requirement for aircraft to have navigation performance monitoring and alert systems to ensure that aircraft stay within a certain area

(W) Advantages PBN offers:

• Reduces environmental impact

• Improves safety

• Improves operational efficiency

• Reduces infrastructure

• Improves equipment and training regulation

(W) PBN airways in high level are _____ routes between _____ to _____

• Q

• 18,000 feet

• FL450

(W) What fix is used to keep aircraft clear of CYR 630/666?

YBC (Baie Comeau)

(A) Gander ACC/Moncton ACC Arrangement

Subject to D.2.1, for flights FL290 and above, direct routes which remain within surveillance coverage are approved without prior coordination to the fixes listed below:

• Any INFs on QM western boundary

• Any QX OEP

• All VOR’s, NDB’s or enroute intersections located in either Gander or Moncton AOR

• The following fixes:

  • STAR entry points in both units

  • BGR (KBGR arrivals only, on or south of a line NEEKO - BGR)

(A) Montreal ACC/Moncton ACC Arrangement

Aircraft within the Moncton high sectors may be routed without prior coordination:

• For overflights, direct any fix located within the boundaries of Montreal ACC’s south specialty, plus DUXIT and LIDAG. For YUL landers DEBUS and KOBEK

• Only if needed for spacing or weather, direct IKMIK (CYUL), CATOG or BEMOG (CYOW), and ODAXY (KORD)

(A) Boston ARTCC/Moncton ACC Agreement

Ensure _____ arrivals filed on a STAR are not routed beyond the STAR entry point (_____ and _____ for the FUNDY arrival, _____ for the MINAS arrival and _____ for the PEGGY arrival). Route aircraft not filed on a STAR:

• Entering the CZQM FIR between DANOL and EBONY must be cleared either _____ > _____ > CYHZ or _____ > CYHZ

• CYHZ

• EBONY

• ALLEX

• OMVEV

• TUSKY

• DANOL

• OMVEV

• EBONY

(S) High SOM

For high level aircraft landing at CYYG or CYQY airports, if the aircraft requests a reroute, the high controller may:

• Clear the aircraft to the requested fix on the approach without prior coordination with Maritime and

• Ensure that CAATS is updated with the amended route, once the reroute has been issued

(W) Westbound tracks begin at the most northern published track starting with NAT Track _____ to NAT Track _____ and are during the _____ normally from _____ - _____ UTC at 30 degrees W. Eastbound tracks begin at the most southern published track starting with NAT Track _____ to NAT Track _____ and are during the _____ normally from _____ - _____ UTC at 30 degrees W. There is never a Track _____ or a Track _____.

• A

• M

• Day

• 1130

• 1900

• Z

• P

• Evening

• 0100

• 0800

• I

• O

(W) Equipment Suffixes:

• MNPS (HLA) Approved:

• RVSM Approved:

• GPS/GNSS:

• CPDLC:

• X

• W

• G

• J1-7

(W) What does TMI stand for and what is it?

• Track Message Indicator

• 3-digit number which corresponds to the day of year the NAT Track message is published (ex January 1st is 001)

• A revision to the track message will be assigned a letter (ex 001A)

(W) A jet stream is a narrow band of strong winds approximately _____ - _____ feet above the earth marking the dividing line between warm and cold air masses that flow from _____ to _____. To be considered a jet stream, wind speeds must exceed _____ knots.

• 20 000

• 40 000

• West

• East

• 60

(W) What does NARs stand for and what is it?

• North American Route

• Mostly direct routes between OEPs and INFs but there can be exceptions to account for non-radar areas or to avoid active special use areas

(S) High SOM: Structured Airspace

You may clear an aircraft at an altitude opposite to structured airspace if:

• Required to temporarily relieve a traffic condition

• Required in an emergency

• Required for turbulence or icing avoidance

• Failure to assign the altitude may result in an unscheduled fuel stop

(M) You may assign an altitude inappropriate to the direction of flight in the following situations:

• The following apply:

  • No alternate separation minima can be applied

  • The altitude has been approved by affected sectors/units

  • The aircraft will be cleared to an appropriate altitude as soon as the conditions permit

• The airspace is structured for one-way traffic flow

• An aircraft is doing any of the following:

  • Holding

  • Arriving

  • Departing

  • Conducting a flight check of a NAVAID

  • Operating within an altitude reservation

  • Engaged in an ariel survey, mapping flight or test flight

  • Operating on a polar route

  • Transitioning to or from oceanic airspace within 200 miles along the aircraft track from the oceanic entry or exit point

• A pilot requests the altitude because of icing, turbulence or fuel considerations and the following apply":

  • The pilot informs you of the time or location that the aircraft can be cleared to an appropriate altitude

  • The altitude has been approved by affected sectors

• A pilot, while in uncontrolled airspace, requests, for operational reasons, clearance to cross an airway below the MEA at an angle of 45 degrees to 135 degrees, inclusive

(W) Systems Acronyms:

• CAATS

• CCWS

• CSiT

• IIDS

• NARDS

• EXCDS

• VSCS

• BUCS

• Canadian Automated Air Traffic System

• CAATS Controller Workstation

• CAATS Situational Display

• Integrated Information Display System

• NAV CANADA Auxiliary Radar Display System

• Extended Computer Display System

• Voice Switching and Control System

• Back-up Communications System

(W) The four flight plan states:

• Filed

• Operative

• Cancelled

• Closed

(W) The four aircraft states:

• Pre-Taxi

• Taxi

• Airborne (CAATS calculates estimates at this stage)

• Arrived

(W) The five CLA (Clearance/Alerting) states:

• IFR Cleared

• No IFR CLX

• Cancel IFR

• CNL ALRT SVCS

• TWR CLX Issued

(W) The three different types of profiles that can be built by CAATS are:

• Expected

• Projected

• Planned

(W) The four types of ambiguities are:

• Ambiguous Aircraft State (PRE: Not used in HIGH)

• Ambiguous Spurious (SPR)

• Ambiguous Route (LAT)

• Ambiguous Position (POS)

(W) If an FDE has not been generated and you expect one, there are a few possible reasons:

• The profile is not up to date

• The flight is ahead of time

• CAATS or your CCWS has failed

• Adaptation issue

(W) ED Mnemonics:

• Mod

• TxP

• Err

• Changed (Green '“Mod'“ above data tag)

• Acceptance Pending Overdue or Manual Overdue (Red “TxP” above data tag)

• Failed (Red “Err” above data tag)

(M) Where a functioning CAATS data link provides control estimates, coordinate the following data verbally:

• Loss of RVSM certification due to an equipment failure in flight

• Status of non-RVSM aircraft authorized to operate in RVSM airspace

• Identification of an altitude as wrong way

• Identification of block altitudes

• Identification of altitude readouts that are invalid or not validated

• Identification of cruise climb altitudes

• Automatic altitude reporting turned off

• Aircraft transponder unserviceable, malfunctioning, set to standby or turned off

• The separation minima being applied in procedural airspace if less than 10 minutes longitudinal

• Aircraft operating within an altitude reservation or engaged in an ariel survey mapping flight or test flight

• Aircraft engaged in a formation flight

Plus HIGH specific:

• Square brackets (Error in flight planned route)

• Route or altitude assignments that are contrary to those defined in our Inter-Unit agreement

(M) If a clearance will become effective within another unit’s area of responsibility, _____ with the unit before transmission to an aircraft.

If necessary, the receiving controller will inform the transferring controller of:

_____ before an IFR or CVFR aircraft is estimated to enter an adjacent IFR unit’s area, forward the flight data and control information indicated in ‘Flight Data and Control Information’.

Where units are connected by a functioning data transfer link, _____, _____, _____, _____, _____ and _____ do not require confirmation by controllers passing and receiving estimates. If amendments to this data have been made and are not incuded in the original flight plan message, controller confirmation is required.

• Coordinate

• Pertinent details to be included in the clearance

• The time period during which the clearance may be issued

• 15 minutes or more

• Aircraft type

• Speed

• SSR code assignment

• Point of departure

• Remaining portion of flight plan

• Destination

(W) What colour does the data tag turn if the flight plan is cancelled or deleted?

Blue-grey colour

(M) Display and monitor:

• Unlinked targets

• CJSs

• Coast list in a full format showing all pertinent information

• Altitude readouts

• Current weather data and history, as necessary, for the provision of severe weather information

• VMI

• Appropriate geographic map

• Other features used at your discretion

(M) When using a CSiT display, ensure that the following settings are applied:

• PPS brightness is at least one level higher than other elements on the display

• Data tags include minima as indicated in the following table:

  • Alpha

    • ACID

    • Wake turbulence category

    • SFI

    • Altitude readout

    • VMI

    • Ground speed

  • Bravo

    • CJS

    • Altitude

    • VMI

  • VFR or Unlinked

    • Altitude

    • VMI

(M) When using inset windows, ensure they are:

• Placed outside sector boundaries or in areas where they do not obstruct jurisdictional traffic

• Not used for ATS surveillance separation purposes

(S) HIGH SOM:

Display the following lists (unfolded) in the visible area of a CSiT and Peer display:

In addition to items detailed in MATS, High must display the following on CSiT:

If an aircraft is cruising at an altitude inappropriate to the direction of flight:

• Coast

• System

• Message

• Pre-Departure

• Departure

• MTCD Conflict

• New York List (for sectors that border NY)

• Hold List

__________________________

• Controller remarks indicator

• Cleared altitude

• Estimate distribution altitude

• Hold tags

• Extrapolated tags

• Altitude for VFR

__________________________

• Ensure the “WWA” mnemonic from the PAM submenu is selected

• For block altitudes, ensure the “BLK” pneumonic is used

(W) What does “NORNAV” indicate in remarks?

Non-RNAV equipped aircraft

(M) Select altitude filters that include, as a minimum, the following limits:

• The altitudes normally within the jurisdiction of your sector

• The first usable altitude in any vertically adjoining airspace under the jurisdiction of another controller, plus 200 feet beyond that altitude

• If the boundary between vertically adjoined sectors is in RVSM airspace, 2000 feet plus 200 feet

(W) What does this PPS indicate?

• RVSM Equipped

• ADSB Disabled

(W) What does this PPS indicate?

• Unlinked

• ADSB Disabled

(W) What does this PPS indicate?

• Unlinked

• ADSB Enabled

(W) What does this PPS indicate?

• RVSM Equipped

• ADSB Enabled

(W) What does this PPS indicate?

• Emergency

• ADSB Disabled

(W) What does this PPS indicate?

• Emergency

• ADSB Enabled

(W) SIGMET advisories include the following:

• Active thunderstorm areas or lines of thunderstorms

• Hurricanes, tropical storms

• Moderate hail

• Severe turbulence

• Severe icing

• Marked mountain waves

• Widespread sandstorms and dust storms

• Volcanic ash

• Severe squall lines

• Low-level wind shear

• Tornadoes or waterspouts

(W) AIRMET advisories include the following:

• IMC: broken or overcast cloud condition less than 1000 feet AGL and/or visibility less than 3 SM

• Freezing precipitation (not requiring a SIGMET)

• Moderate icing

• Moderate turbulence

• Thunderstorms (isolated as opposed to a line)

• An increase in the surface mean wind over a large area to 20 kts or more or an increase in gusts to 30 kts or more, when no winds were originally forecast

• A difference between the forecast and observed wind direction greater than 60 degrees

(M) Glossary: Coasting

A function that displays the predicted position of a PPS for a correlated aircraft in the event of missed or ambiguous ATS surveillance data

(M) Separate aircraft consistently according to these fundamentals of safe, orderly and expeditious control:

• Planning: determine the appropriate separation minimum required

• Executing: implement the selected standard

• Monitoring: ensure that the planned and executed separation is maintained

(M) You may assign an altitude only after another aircraft previously at that altitude, or climbing or descending through that altitude, has reported or is observed doing one of the following: 

• Vacating or passing the altitude you want to assign

• Vacating or passing an altitude separated by the appropriate minimum from the altitude you want to assign, and one of the following applies:

  • Severe turbulence exists

  • The aircraft previously at the altitude you want to assign has been issued a cruise climb

(M) Vertical Separation Minima for RVSM and Non-RVSM Aircraft:

If either aircraft is a non-RVSM aircraft, apply one of the following minima:

• _____ when either aircraft is below _____

• _____ when both of the following conditions are met:

  • Both aircraft are at or above _____

  • Either aircraft is at or below _____

• _____ when both aircraft are above _____

If both aircraft are RVSM aircraft, apply one of the following minima:

• _____ when both aircraft are at or below _____

• _____ when both of the following conditions are met:

  • Either aircraft is at or above _____

  • Either aircraft is at or below _____

• _____ when both aircraft are above _____

• 1000 feet

• FL290

• 2000 feet

• FL290

• FL590

• 5000 feet

• FL590

• 1000 feet

• FL410

• 2000 feet

• FL410

• FL590

• 5000 feet

• FL590

(M) Validate altitude readouts by comparing the readout value with the altitude reported by the pilot, at either of the following times:

Note: An altitude readout is valid if the readout value does not differ by more than _____ from the altitude reported by the aircraft. An aircraft _____ have to be in level flight for altitude validation.

• On initial contact

• As soon as feasible, if the readout is not displayed or cannot be validated on initial contact

______________________

• “Report [your] Altitude”

• “Say [your] Altitude”

• “Confirm [at] (altitude)”

______________________

• 200 feet

• Does not

(M) You may use validated altitude readouts to determine aircraft altitude as indicated in the following table.

• To be maintaining an altitude:

• To have reached an altitude:

• To have vacated an altitude:

• To have passed an altitude:

• Its altitude readout is within 200 feet of the assigned altitude

• Its altitude readout has been within 200 feet of the assigned altitude for four consecutive readout updates

• Its altitude has changed by 300 feet or more, in the appropriate direction, from the value that prevailed while the aircraft was in level flight

• Its altitude readout has changed by 300 feet or more in the appropriate direction

(M) For aircraft on reciprocal tracks in an ATS surveillance environment, you may discontinue vertical separation if you observe on the situation display that the aircraft have passed, and one of the conditions indicated in the following table applies:

• Sources include DND-NWS

• General surveillance requirements:

  • Sources include RSE, MLAT/WAM or DND-NG

  • Sources do not include DND-NWS

    • One of the following applies:

• Specially approved application of GB ADS-B surveillance requirements:

  • A DAL has been issued to use GBADS-B for ATS surveillance standards less than 5 miles

  • Sources include GB ADS-B

  • Sources do not include DND-NWS

    • One of the following applies:

• All other situations

• 5 miles

• PPSs do not overlap

  • Altitude readouts are displayed for both aircraft

  • Both aircraft are at or below 15000 feet ASL

• PPSs do not overlap

  • Altitude readouts are displayed for both aircraft

  • Both aircraft are at or below 15000 feet ASL

• 3 miles

(M) Use an ATS surveillance control procedure in preference to a procedural control procedure unless you or the pilot _____:

You may apply ATS surveillance control procedures, provided:

• gain an operational advantage

______________________

• The aircraft is identified

• The aircraft is in controlled airspace, except as described in Vectoring into Class G Airspace

• You are in direct communication with the pilot, unless

  • The aircraft has been cleared for an approach

  • You have transferred communication to the tower

• You are satisfied that the displayed ATS surveillance information is adequate

(M) ATS Surveillance Service Termination

If ATS surveillance service cannot be provided or is terminated, _____.

If ATS surveillance service is terminated after an approach clearance is issued, or after the pilot cancels IFR, you _____.

Before terminating ATS surveillance service, _____.

• Inform the pilot

• Do not need to inform the pilot

• Instruct a pilot to resume position reporting

(M) If you are not satisfied that the displayed ATS surveillance information is adequate:

• Inform the supervisor or delegated authority

• Base subsequent control actions on direction provided in ATS directives supplemented by direction from your supervisor or delegated authority. If such direction is not available, base your actions on your assessment of the equipment

(M) When applying wake turbulence separation with ATS surveillance, use a minimum indicated in the table below for any of the following situation:

Note: You need not apply this separation if the trailing aircraft will remain in either of the following situations:

Table:

• First aircraft: Super

  • Super:

  • Heavy:

  • Medium:

  • Light:

• First aircraft: Heavy

  • Super:

  • Heavy:

  • Medium:

  • Light:

• First aircraft: Medium

  • Light:

• An aircraft is operating at the same altitude in front of another aircraft

• An aircraft is crossing an altitude in front of another aircraft

• A VFR aircraft that is in the super, heavy, or a heavier category is on final ahead of an IFR aircraft

• An aircraft is ahead of an aircraft that is conducting an instrument approach

• An aircraft is being vectored unless visual separation is established

______________________

• Above a super, heavy, or heavier aircraft

• 1000 feet or more below the altitude vacated by a super, heavy , or heavier aircraft at the crossing point

______________________

• Super

  • 4 miles

  • 6 miles

  • 7 miles

  • 8 miles

• Heavy

  • 4 miles

  • 4 miles

  • 5 miles

  • 6 miles

• Medium

  • 4 miles

(M) You may use parallel offset techniques in an ATS surveillance environment, provided:

• The pilot confirms the capability to offset

  • “Advise if able to proceed parallel offset”

• The minimum offset value ensures the appropriate ATS surveillance separation minimum will exist

  • “Proceed offset (number) miles (left/right) of centreline (track/route) at (significant point/time) until (significant point/time)”

• You cancel the parallel offset when it is no longer required

  • “Cancel offset”

(W) If an aircraft reports encountering possible wake turbulence, regardless of the distance and type of any preceding aircraft, controllers shall report the occurrence to their supervisor or duty Shift Manager. Details to be reported include:

• Reporting aircraft and preceding aircraft call sign and type

• Time of occurrence

• ATC sector and frequency involved

(W) The three weight categories are:

• Light:

• Medium:

• Heavy/Super:

• Up to and including 15,500 lbs (7,000 kg)

• More than 15,500 lbs but less than 300,000 lbs

• 300,000 lbs (136,000 kg) and over

(M) Apply vertical separation with a CYR as indicated in the table below

Upper Limit

• IFR:

  • Above FL290: _____

  • FL290 and below: _____

• VFR: _____

Lower Limit

• IFR:

  • Above FL290: _____

  • 18000 feet ASL to FL290: _____

• VFR: ______ 

• 2000 feet

• 1000 feet

• Aircraft must not penetrate

• 2000 feet

• 1000 feet

• Aircraft must not penetrate

(M) Lateral ATS Surveillance Separation between an Aircraft and a CYR

IFR

• General surveillance requirements:

  • Sources include RSE, MLAT/WAM, or DND-NG

  • Sources do not include DND-NWS

    • Other conditions:

• Specially approved application of GB ADS-B surveillance requirements:

  • A DAL has been issued to use GB ADS-B for ATS surveillance standards less than 5 miles

  • Sources include GB ADS-B

  • Sources do not include DND-NWS

    • Other conditions:

• All other situations where sources do not include DND-NWS

• Sources include DND-NWS

VFR

• All

• 3 miles

  • You provide terminal control service

  • CSiT or NARDS displays a maximum range of 120 miles from left to right

  • An altitude readout is displayed for the aircraft, or the aircraft is at or below 15000 feet ASL

• 3 miles

  • You provide terminal control service

  • CSiT or NARDS displays a maximum range of 120 miles from left to right

  • An altitude readout is displayed for the aircraft, or the aircraft is at or below 15000 feet ASL

• 5 miles

• 10 miles

• No part of the PPS enters or touches

(M) In response to a loss or an imminent loss of separation from Class F Restricted airspace, issue an airspace alert including avoidance instructions that use the word _____.

Note: If an aircraft has already penetrated the outer edge of Class F airspace, _____. Do not issue further _____.

• Immediately

• Issue an advisory

• Avoidance instructions

______________________

“(aircraft id) airspace alert (climb/descend) [altitude] immediately to avoid restricted airspace”

“(aircraft id) airspace alert turn (left/right) (number) degrees immediately to avoid restricted airspace”

(M) Apply separation in controlled airspace between an aircraft and the boundary of a CYD as you would with a _____

CYR

(M) Apply vertical separation with a CYA as indicated in the table below

Upper Limit

• IFR:

  • FL180 and above: _____

  • Below 18000 feet ASL: _____

• VFR: _____

Lower Limit

• IFR:

  • FL180 and above: _____

  • Below 18000 feet ASL: _____

• VFR: ______ 

• 500 feet (1000 with wake turbulence separation required)

• 500 feet (1000 with wake turbulence separation required)

• Aircraft may enter

• 500 feet (1000 with wake turbulence separation required)

• 500 feet (1000 with wake turbulence separation required)

• Aircraft may enter

(M) If not using ATS surveillance, ensure the protected airspace for the IFR or CVFR aircraft does not overlap the CYA.

If using ATS surveillance, ensure direct communication using VHF/UHF voice, and refer tot the table below:

IFR or CVFR

• Does not include DND-NWS:

• Is or includes DND-NWS:

VFR

• All

• No part of the PPS enters or touches

• 5 miles

• Aircraft may enter

(M) If a pilot operating in controlled airspace requests a clearance to penetrate Class F Advisory airspace or fly closer to it than separation minima would permit without permission from the user agency, _____. If the pilot insists on penetrating the Class F Advisory airspace or flies closer to it than separation minima permit, _____.

• advise the pilot that you are unable to provide an IFR clearance

• issue an advisory

“Advisory area (name/number) is active. An ATC clearance cannot be issued. You are proceeding through advisory area at your own risk."

(M) Apply separation in controlled airspace between an aircraft and the boundary of airspace restricted by the Minister. Ensure _____ using VHF/UHF voice if applying ATS surveillance separation.

• Direct communication

(M) NOTAMs Affecting Instrument Procedures

When airspace is restricted by the Minister, NAV CANADA’s Flight Procedure Design Unit must assess impacts to instrument procedures and promulgate any impact by _____.

You may issue clearances and instructions for use of an affected instrument procedure (or a portion thereof) if both of the following conditions are met:

• NOTAM

______________________

• The related NOTAM contains a statement to aircraft operators advising that ATC mitigation may be available

• You are aware of limitations to the restricted airspace (start time, duration, location, size, containment area, altitude, etc.) allowing for the affected instrument procedure to be flown safely

(M)

Area near a forest fire

• When the forest fire area is known, apply separation as described in the following table. See exceptions below:

  • A published NOTAM exists:

  • No NOTAM exists:

    • Note: In the absence of a NOTAM, it is the pilot’s responsibility to remain clear of a forest fire area by _____ and remain above _____

Exceptions:

• Regardless of whether a NOTAM exists, the following people may have authorization to operate within airspace near a forest fire:

Special Aviation Event With No Planned Aeronautical Activity

• When the airspace restriction is described by a published NOTAM but no aeronautical activity is planned, _____

Special Aviation Event Without an Operational Agreement

• When there is no operational agreement between an event organizer and the applicable ATS unit(s), and the airspace restriction is described in a published NOTAM, _____

Special Aviation Event With an Operational Agreement in Effect

• An operational agreement between the special event sponsor and the ATS unit(s) is in effect and describes _____. The published NOTAM describes _____

• For lateral separation, _____ the area defined in the operational agreement. For vertical separation apply as follows:

  • No conditions:

  • Wake separation is required and coordinated with the controlling agency:

  • The reported ceiling is 1000 feet, or less from the upper limit of the airspace used by the performing aircraft:

Canadian Military Operations Area (MOA)

• Apply separation in controlled airspace between an aircraft and the boundary of a Canadian MOA as you would with a _____

• Do not allow aircraft to penetrate area described in the NOTAM

• Provide a flight advisory

  • 5 miles

  • 3000 feet AGL

• Exceptions:

  • Fire control authorities, or people who assist them

  • People authorized by the Minister

  • Department of Transport personnel

• Do not allow aircraft to penetrate the area described in the NOTAM

• Apply separation from the NOTAM area as you would with a CYR

• Areas used by a controlling agency such as an Air Boss

• The restricted area and identifies the ATS unit authorized to permit aircraft to enter the airspace

• No part of the PPS enters or touches

  • 500 feet

  • 1000 feet

  • 1000 feet

• CYA

(M) American Special-Use Airspace

American special-use airspace can be _____, _____, _____, _____ or an _____

Lateral Separation:

• IFR

  • At or above FL600:

  • Below FL600:

• VFR

  • All:

Vertical Separation:

• IFR

  • Above FL290:

  • At or below FL290:

• VFR

  • All:

• Prohibited area

• Restricted area

• Warning area

• MOA

• ACTAA

_____________________

• 6 miles

• 3 miles

• No part of the PPS enters or touches

_____________________

• 1000 feet

• 500 feet

• Aircraft must not penetrate

(W) What fix is used to keep aircraft clear of CYR630/666?

YBC (Baie Comeau)

(W) What route will keep aircraft clear of CYR630/666?

YBC direct YXI

(M) Flight Priority

Provide air traffic services to aircraft on a “_____” and give priority as indicated below in the following sections.

Exceptions to “_____” are permitted when they increase overall efficiency and reduce the average delay.

Give priority to:

• “first come, first served”

_____________________

• “first come, first served”

_____________________

• A pilot who declares an emergency

  • A MEDEVAC flight declaring an emergency will display both the red (+) symbol and the ADS-B emergency alert

• An aircraft that appears to be in a state of emergency, but is apparently unable to inform you

• A pilot who reports that the aircraft may be compelled to land because of factors affecting the safe operation of the aircraft, other than minimum fuel or a fuel emergency

  • A pilot’s declaration of MINIMUM FUEL is handled in accordance with Minimum Fuel

  • A pilot’s declaration of MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL is an emergency and is handled in accordance with Aircraft in Distress or Emergency

• Medical evacuation flight or an aircraft that declares a medical emergency

  • A MEDEVAC flight is indicated by the red (+)  symbol on the display

  • HOSPITAL and US Military (AIR EVAC or MED EVAC) flights are granted priority on request

• Military or civilian aircraft identified by the radiotelephony call sign RESCUE and the designator RSCU followed by an appropriate flight number

• Military aircraft departing on active scrambles or operational air defence flights

• Open Skies Treaty flights with designators F and D

• Military aircraft departing on planned and coordinated air defence exercises

(M) Vector an aircraft by specifying one of the following:

Note: Vector aircraft that are north of _____ by specifying the _____ and the _____.

• The heading to be flown

  • “fly heading (number)”

  • “(leave/depart) (fix) heading (number)”

  • “maintain present heading”

• The direction of the turn and the heading to be flown after completion of the turn

  • “turn (left/right) heading (number)”

• The direction of the turn and the number of degrees to turn

  • “turn (left/right) (number) degrees”

_____________________

• 70 degrees North

• direction of the turn

• number of degrees to turn

(W) What does RTPQA (Real Time Performance and Quality Assurance) indicate in a flight plan?

Pre-approved entry into CYR630/666 (also called “Top Aces”)

(M) Issue vectors or offset tracks to establish an aircraft at least 5 miles from the centreline of the airway or published track otherwise authorized if:

If you are unable to approve the pilot’s request for the altitude because of icing, turbulence or fuel considerations, _____, and request _____

• The aircraft is in high-level ATS surveillance-controlled airspace

• You are assigning an altitude inappropriate to the direction of flight in one of the following situations:

  • No alternate separation minima can be applied

  • A pilot requests an inappropriate altitude because of icing, turbulence, or fuel considerations and has informed you of the time or location at which the flight can be cleared to an appropriate altitude that has already been approved by affected sectors or units

• The airway or published track is shown on the display

_____________________

• Provide the reason

• The pilot’s intentions

(M) If a cruising altitude inappropriate to the direction of flight is assigned:

• Instruct the pilot to make position reports

• Identify the altitude as WRONG WAY for any of these coordination tasks:

  • Passing and receiving a control estimate

  • Giving and receiving a handoff

  • Coordinating with an adjacent sector/unit

• Post warning indicators by using the wrong-way altitude alerting function, if possible

• Before transferring control, inform the receiving controller of the reason for the assignment

(W) If CYA733 becomes active aircraft can be rerouted to _____ to avoid the active area.

ALKOB

(M) Urgent Police Matters and Active Fire-fighting Missions

You may give priority to aircraft operating on urgent police matters or active fire-fighting missions.

Unless the pilot requests _____, do not interrupt the normal movement of itinerant airport traffic. Local aircraft, however, may be redirected to accommodate these operations.

When an agreement for urgent police matters and active fire-fighting missions exists, you may authorize levels of flight priority and emergency handling according to the _____.

• Emergency handling

• Agreement

(M) Factors that could affect traffic sequence include:

• The type of approach intended

• The types of aircraft and their relative performance

• Any specified minimum departure interval between takeoffs

• The routes to be followed after takeoff

• Wake turbulence separation minima

• Aircraft subject to ATFM