Comprehensive Human Anatomy and Physiology: Respiratory, Urinary, Fluid Balance, Reproduction, and Cardiovascular Systems

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146 Terms

1
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What is the primary function of the respiratory system?

To provide body cells with oxygen (O2) and remove waste carbon dioxide (CO2).

2
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What are the two main zones of the respiratory system?

The Conducting Zone and the Respiratory Zone.

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What structures are included in the Conducting Zone?

Structures from the nose to the bronchioles.

4
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What is the role of the Respiratory Membrane?

It is the barrier across which gas exchange occurs, composed of alveolar type I cells, basement membranes, and endothelial cells.

5
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What is Boyle's Law?

It describes the inverse relationship between pressure and volume of gas at constant temperature.

6
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What is the driving force behind pulmonary ventilation?

Pressure gradients; gas moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.

7
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What is Tidal Volume (TV)?

The amount of air inspired or expired during normal quiet ventilation, approximately 500 ml in healthy adults.

8
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What is the Anatomical Dead Space?

The portion of Tidal Volume (150 ml) that does not participate in gas exchange.

9
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What is Vital Capacity (VC)?

The total amount of exchangeable air, calculated as TV + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV).

10
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What is the role of surfactant in the alveoli?

It reduces surface tension, preventing alveolar collapse during expiration.

11
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What is the difference between external respiration and internal respiration?

External respiration is the gas exchange between lungs and blood; internal respiration is the gas exchange between blood and tissues.

12
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What is Dalton's Law?

The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of its component gases.

13
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What is Henry's Law?

The degree a gas dissolves in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure and solubility in that liquid.

14
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What is the significance of ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) coupling?

It ensures that air reaching the alveoli matches blood flow for efficient gas exchange.

15
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What is the composition of oxygen transport in the blood?

Approximately 1.5% is dissolved in plasma, and 98.5% is bound to hemoglobin (Hb).

16
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What happens during quiet inspiration?

The diaphragm contracts, increasing thoracic cavity height and lung volume, allowing air to flow in.

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What is the role of the diaphragm in breathing?

It contracts during inspiration to increase thoracic cavity volume and facilitate air intake.

18
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What is the typical range for Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)?

Approximately 2100-3300 ml.

19
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What is the purpose of the spirometer?

To measure and record the volumes of air inhaled and exhaled.

20
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What is the effect of inadequate surfactant in infants?

It leads to Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS), making alveolar inflation difficult.

21
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What is the typical range for Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)?

Approximately 700-1200 ml.

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What is the Residual Volume (RV)?

The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration.

23
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What is Total Lung Capacity (TLC)?

The sum of all pulmonary volumes: IRV + TV + ERV + RV.

24
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What is the primary role of the tracheal epithelium?

It is pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium that helps filter and moisten air.

25
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What is the significance of the steepness of the pressure gradient in gas exchange?

It determines the rate of gas diffusion between alveoli and blood.

26
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What are the signs of impaired gas exchange?

Hypoxemia (low blood O2) and Hypercapnia (high blood CO2).

27
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What process occurs when O2 binds to hemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries?

Loading

28
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What is the term for hemoglobin releasing O2 to tissues in systemic capillaries?

Unloading

29
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What does the hemoglobin saturation curve depict?

Hb saturation at varying PO2 levels.

30
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What is the normal saturation percentage of arterial hemoglobin?

Approximately 97-100%.

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What is the saturation percentage of venous blood hemoglobin at rest?

Approximately 75%.

32
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What shape is the hemoglobin saturation curve?

S-shaped.

33
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How does fetal hemoglobin differ from adult hemoglobin?

Fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen.

34
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What factors affect hemoglobin's affinity for O2?

Temperature, PCO2, pH, and 2,3 BPG.

35
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What does a right shift in the hemoglobin saturation curve indicate?

Decreased affinity for O2, facilitating unloading.

36
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What causes a right shift in the hemoglobin saturation curve?

Increased temperature, acidity (decreased pH), PCO2, and 2,3 BPG.

37
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What is the effect of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning on hemoglobin?

Increases Hb's affinity for O2, decreasing O2 release to tissues.

38
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What percentage of carbon dioxide is dissolved in plasma?

7-10%.

39
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What percentage of carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin?

20-23%.

40
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What percentage of carbon dioxide is converted to bicarbonate (HCO3-) in the body?

70%.

41
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Where does HCO3- conversion primarily occur?

In red blood cells (RBCs), catalyzed by Carbonic Anhydrase (CA).

42
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What is the chloride shift?

Cl- diffuses into RBCs as HCO3- diffuses out to balance charge.

43
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What occurs during the reverse chloride shift?

Cl- diffuses out of RBCs as HCO3- diffuses back in, forming CO2.

44
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What characterizes restrictive lung diseases?

Decreased pulmonary compliance and reduced inspiration effectiveness.

45
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What are examples of restrictive lung diseases?

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis and pneumoconiosis.

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What characterizes obstructive lung diseases?

Increased airway resistance and decreased efficiency of expiration.

47
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What is the primary risk factor for lung cancer?

Cigarette smoking.

48
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What is the average Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?

Approximately 125 ml/min (180 L/day).

49
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What does the filtration membrane consist of?

Fenestrated glomerular capillary endothelial cells, basal lamina, and podocytes.

50
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What is the formula for Net Filtration Pressure (NFP)?

NFP = GHP - (GCOP + CHP).

51
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What is the role of the myogenic mechanism in GFR regulation?

It maintains GFR by constricting the afferent arteriole in response to increased systemic BP.

52
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What is the function of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)?

It maintains systemic BP primarily and GFR secondarily.

53
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What effect does Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) have on GFR?

It increases GFR by dilating afferent arterioles and constricting efferent arterioles.

54
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What is tubular reabsorption?

The process of reclaiming substances from tubular fluid back into the blood.

55
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What is tubular secretion?

The active process of adding substances to filtrate from blood for excretion.

56
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What is the Transport Maximum (TM)?

The maximum solute levels that can be transported; if reached, substances remain in filtrate.

57
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What condition occurs when the tubular maximum for glucose is reached?

Glycosuria, commonly seen in diabetes mellitus due to hyperglycemia.

58
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What is the primary function of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?

Reabsorbs approximately 100% of organic solutes (glucose, amino acids) and about 65% of water.

59
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How does sodium reabsorption occur in the PCT?

The Na+/K+ pump transports 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell, creating a low Na+ gradient that drives Na+/H+ antiporters and Na+/glucose symporters.

60
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What percentage of bicarbonate (HCO3-) is reabsorbed in the PCT?

Approximately 90%.

61
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What is obligatory water reabsorption in the PCT?

About 85% of water is reabsorbed because it follows reabsorbed solutes by osmosis.

62
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What role do aquaporins play in the kidneys?

Aquaporins are water channels that greatly increase water reabsorption.

63
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What substances are secreted in the PCT?

H+ ions, drugs (like penicillin and morphine), and nitrogenous wastes (NH3, creatinine, urea).

64
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What is the overall function of the nephron loop?

Reabsorbs approximately 20% of water and 25% of Na+/Cl-.

65
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What is the permeability of the thin descending limb of the nephron loop?

Freely permeable to water but not to solutes.

66
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What happens to filtrate osmolarity in the thin descending limb?

Filtrate osmolarity increases, reaching about 900 mOsm.

67
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What is the function of the thick ascending limb of the nephron loop?

Impermeable to water; actively transports Na+/Cl- out, decreasing filtrate osmolarity.

68
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What is the countercurrent mechanism?

It creates and maintains the medullary osmotic gradient, involving juxtamedullary nephrons, urea recycling, and vasa recta.

69
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What is the role of urea in the collecting ducts?

Urea is reabsorbed into interstitial fluid, contributing to the medullary gradient.

70
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What regulates water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD)?

It is highly hormone-regulated to fine-tune water, electrolyte, and acid-base balance.

71
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What is facultative water reabsorption?

Approximately 15% of water reabsorption adjusted according to the body's needs, occurring in the late DCT and CD.

72
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What effect does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) have on water reabsorption?

ADH triggers the insertion of aquaporin (AQP2) water channels into the apical membranes of principal cells.

73
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What is the effect of aldosterone on sodium and potassium?

Increases the number of Na+/K+ pumps, leading to increased Na+ reabsorption and K+/H+ secretion.

74
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What does atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) do?

Inhibits Na+ ion reabsorption, resulting in increased water and sodium excretion.

75
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What is the average total body water percentage of body weight?

Approximately 60%.

76
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What are the two main fluid compartments in the body?

Intracellular compartment (ICF) and extracellular compartment (ECF).

77
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What is the osmotic pressure gradient?

Solutes pull water toward the solution with higher osmotic pressure (higher osmolarity).

78
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What happens to cells in hypotonic ECF?

Cells gain water and swell.

79
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What is hypernatremia?

A condition characterized by sodium levels greater than 145 mEq/l, commonly caused by dehydration.

80
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What is hypokalemia?

A condition where potassium levels are less than 3.9 mEq/l, making the resting membrane potential more negative.

81
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What is the normal pH range of blood?

7.35-7.45, which is slightly alkaline.

82
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What is the role of bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) in acid-base balance?

It is the most common base that accepts H+.

83
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What is the effect of hypercalcemia on neurons?

Neurons become less permeable to Na+, diminishing their ability to depolarize.

84
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What is the most common base in the body?

Bicarbonate ion (HCO₃⁻)

85
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What is a volatile acid and how is it eliminated?

Carbonic acid (H₂CO₃) from CO₂ gas; eliminated by kidneys and lungs.

86
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What are fixed acids and how are they eliminated?

Fixed acids (e.g., lactic acid, uric acid, ketone bodies) must be eliminated by the kidneys.

87
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What is the function of buffer systems in the body?

Buffer systems resist dramatic swings in H⁺ concentration.

88
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Which buffer system is the most important in blood?

The Carbonic Acid Buffer System.

89
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What is the reaction catalyzed by Carbonic Anhydrase?

CO₂ + H₂O ↔ H₂CO₃ ↔ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻.

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What percentage of the body's total buffering capacity is composed of protein buffer systems?

60-70%.

91
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How does the respiratory system regulate volatile acids?

It controls CO₂ levels, which determine H₂CO₃ and HCO₃⁻ levels.

92
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What happens during hyperventilation?

Increased respiratory rate/depth leads to decreased PCO₂ and increased pH (risk of Respiratory Alkalosis).

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What happens during hypoventilation?

Decreased respiratory rate/depth leads to increased PCO₂ and decreased pH (risk of Respiratory Acidosis).

94
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How does the urinary system regulate fixed acids?

It controls fixed acids and HCO₃⁻; compensation takes hours to days but is more effective.

95
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What is the response of the urinary system to acidosis?

Increased reabsorption of HCO₃⁻ and secretion of H⁺.

96
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What defines acidosis in terms of pH?

pH < 7.35.

97
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What are the effects of acidosis on neurons?

Neurons become less excitable, leading to nervous system depression.

98
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What defines alkalosis in terms of pH?

pH > 7.45.

99
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What are the effects of alkalosis on neurons?

Increased excitability of neurons, which can lead to seizures or coma.

100
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What is spermatogenesis?

The production of male gametes, occurring in seminiferous tubules.