NHA CCMA EXAM 2026

Anterior means what? (A Back B Front C Side D Toward head)

Front

Posterior means what? (A Front B Side C Back D Toward feet)

Back

What does HIPAA protect? (A Providers B Billing C Patient privacy D Facilities)

Patient privacy

Suffix meaning inflammation? (A -osis B -ectomy C -itis D -pathy)

-itis

Primary energy source for body? (A Protein B Fat C Carbohydrate D Vitamin)

Carbohydrate

Cells that carry oxygen? (A Platelets B WBC C RBC D Plasma)

Red blood cells

Universal precautions apply to? (A Blood only B All patients C Known infections D Employees only)

All patients

Gallbladder location? (A LUQ B LLQ C RUQ D RLQ)

RUQ

Functional unit of kidney? (A Neuron B Nephron C Alveolus D Lobule)

Nephron

System that regulates hormones? (A Nervous B Respiratory C Endocrine D Digestive)

Endocrine

Before venipuncture, MA should first? (A Tourniquet B Identify patient C Label tube D Draw blood)

Identify patient

Device for oxygen saturation? (A Thermometer B Pulse oximeter C BP cuff D Spirometer)

Pulse oximeter

Tube for glucose testing? (A Red B Lavender C Green D Gray)

Gray

Sterile field is contaminated when? (A Above waist B Sterile glove touches C Nonsterile object crosses D Covered tools used)

Nonsterile object crosses

Position for sigmoidoscopy? (A Supine B Lithotomy C Left lateral D Prone)

Left lateral

BMI measures? (A Blood pressure B Body fat C Lung capacity D Glucose)

Body fat

Elevated BP reading? (A 118/76 B 128/78 C 104/60 D 90/50)

128/78

First step after patient faints? (A Sit upright B Supine position C Give food D Leave room)

Supine position

Order of draw begins with? (A Lavender B Light blue C Gray D Green)

Light blue

EKG skin prep includes? (A Lotion B Clean dry skin C Oil D Bandage)

Clean dry skin

CMS-1500 is used for? (A Hospital billing B Provider billing C Employment D Pharmacy)

Provider billing

NPI identifies the? (A Patient B Provider C Insurance D Employer)

Provider

Purpose of incident report? (A Discipline B Documentation C Billing D Legal punishment)

Documentation

PHI stands for? (A Public Health Info B Protected Health Information C Patient History Index D Provider Health ID)

Protected Health Information

Negligence means? (A Intentional harm B Failure to use reasonable care C Consent D Refusal)

Failure to use reasonable care

Informed consent requires? (A MA explanation B Provider explanation C Family approval D Written refusal)

Provider explanation

Sharps disposed in? (A Biohazard bag B Red bag C Sharps container D Trash)

Sharps container

Normal adult pulse range? (A 40-60 B 60-100 C 100-140 D 140-180)

60-100

Normal adult respirations? (A 8-10 B 10-12 C 12-20 D 20-30)

12-20

Best site for adult IM injection? (A Deltoid B Vastus lateralis C Dorsogluteal D Abdomen)

Deltoid

Angle for IM injection? (A 15° B 45° C 90° D 180°)

90°

Angle for subcutaneous injection? (A 15° B 30° C 45° D 90°)

45°

Angle for intradermal injection? (A 15° B 45° C 90° D 180°)

15°

Alcohol should dry before injection to? (A Reduce pain B Prevent contamination C Improve absorption D Sterilize needle)

Prevent contamination

Best vein for venipuncture? (A Basilic B Cephalic C Median cubital D Dorsal hand)

Median cubital

Tourniquet should be applied how long max? (A 30 sec B 1 min C 2 min D 5 min)

1 minute

Capillary puncture site for infants? (A Finger B Heel C Toe D Earlobe)

Heel

Normal fasting blood glucose? (A 60-80 B 70-99 C 100-120 D 120-140)

70-99

Test for diabetes screening? (A CBC B A1C C PT D BMP)

A1C

CLIA-waived tests include? (A MRI B Rapid strep C CT scan D Ultrasound)

Rapid strep

Urine specimen clean-catch purpose? (A Volume B Sterility C Color D Odor)

Sterility

Pregnancy test detects which hormone? (A Estrogen B Progesterone C hCG D LH)

hCG

Normal adult temperature oral? (A 96.0-97.0 B 97.6-99.6 C 99.7-101 D 101-103)

97.6-99.6

Pulse deficit means? (A Slow pulse B Irregular pulse C Difference between apical & radial D No pulse)

Difference between apical and radial

EKG artifact is caused by? (A Heart disease B Patient movement C MI D Hypertension)

Patient movement

Medical asepsis refers to? (A Sterile technique B Clean technique C Surgical scrub D Isolation)

Clean technique

Surgical asepsis means? (A Clean technique B Sterile technique C Handwashing D PPE use)

Sterile technique

PPE stands for? (A Personal Protection Equipment B Patient Protection Equipment C Personal Protective Equipment D Provider Protection Equipment)

Personal Protective Equipment

Bloodborne pathogens spread through? (A Air B Water C Blood D Food)

Blood

Needlestick injury first action? (A Report incident B Wash area C Get vaccine D Ignore)

Wash area

OSHA regulates? (A Patient care B Workplace safety C Insurance D Licensing)

Workplace safety

Autoclave sterilizes using? (A Chemicals B Steam under pressure C UV light D Alcohol)

Steam under pressure

Proper handwashing time minimum? (A 5 sec B 10 sec C 20 sec D 60 sec)

20 seconds

MRSA is spread by? (A Airborne B Contact C Droplets D Vectors)

Contact

Airborne precautions require? (A Gloves B Gown C N95 mask D Face shield)

N95 mask

Droplet precautions require? (A Surgical mask B N95 C Gloves only D No PPE)

Surgical mask

Chain of infection includes? (A 4 links B 5 links C 6 links D 7 links)

6 links

Medical waste disposed in? (A Black bag B Clear bag C Red biohazard bag D Sharps container)

Red biohazard bag

Suture removal requires? (A MA permission B Provider order C Patient consent only D Insurance approval)

Provider order

Scope of practice determined by? (A Employer B State law C Patient D Insurance)

State law

Controlled substances require? (A Verbal order only B Double lock storage C No documentation D OTC access)

Double lock storage

Medication routes include all EXCEPT? (A Oral B Topical C Rectal D Intracardiac)

Intracardiac

Abbreviation PO means? (A By mouth B After meals C Before meals D Through skin)

By mouth

Abbreviation PRN means? (A Daily B As needed C At bedtime D Immediately)

As needed

Time on prescription means? (A Dosage B Frequency C Route D Duration)

Frequency

Medication errors should be reported to? (A Patient B Supervisor C Insurance D Media)

Supervisor

Medication reconciliation compares? (A Vitals B Lab results C Current meds D Diagnoses)

Current medications

Right patient is part of which? (A HIPAA B OSHA C Six rights of medication D Informed consent)

Six rights of medication

Right route ensures medication is given? (A Correct dose B Correct patient C Correct method D Correct time)

Correct method

Nitroglycerin is administered? (A Orally B Sublingually C Intramuscular D Rectally)

Sublingually

Insulin is given by which route? (A IM B IV C Subcutaneous D Oral)

Subcutaneous

Heparin injection route? (A IM B IV or SubQ C Oral D Intradermal)

IV or SubQ

Vaccines are commonly administered? (A Subcutaneous B Intradermal C Intramuscular D Oral)

Intramuscular

Peak flow meter measures? (A Oxygen saturation B Lung capacity C Blood pressure D Heart rate)

Lung capacity

Spirometry assesses? (A Cardiac output B Respiratory function C Kidney function D Liver enzymes)

Respiratory function

Pulse oximetry normal range? (A 80-85% B 86-89% C 90-100% D 100-110%)

90-100%

Orthostatic hypotension is assessed by? (A Temperature changes B Pulse only C BP lying, sitting, standing D Weight)

BP lying, sitting, standing

Shock signs include? (A Hypertension B Bradycardia C Pale clammy skin D Fever)

Pale clammy skin

First response to chest pain? (A Give food B Call 911/provider C Ignore D Document only)

Call provider

CPR ratio for adult? (A 15:2 B 20:2 C 30:2 D 40:2)

30:2

AED should be used when? (A Patient breathing B No pulse C High BP D Chest pain only)

No pulse

Medical emergency protocol includes? (A Stay silent B Panic C Follow office policy D Leave patient)

Follow office policy

Advance directive indicates? (A Insurance B Patient wishes C Diagnosis D Billing)

Patient wishes

Living will states? (A Financial info B Treatment preferences C Med allergies D Next of kin)

Treatment preferences

Durable power of attorney allows? (A Provider consent B Patient refusal C Another person to decide care D MA decisions)

Another person to decide care

Incident reports are completed? (A For punishment B Immediately after event C Weekly D Only if severe)

Immediately after event

Telephone etiquette includes? (A Loud voice B Hold without consent C Identify office and self D Multitask)

Identify office and self

SBAR communication stands for? (A Situation Background Assessment Recommendation B Subjective Basic Action Review C Safety Barrier Alert Response D Standard Brief Admin Report)

Situation Background Assessment Recommendation

Release of information requires? (A Verbal approval B Written authorization C Family request D Provider consent only)

Written authorization

Scheduling should consider? (A Provider availability B Patient preference only C Walk-ins only D Insurance)

Provider availability

Double booking should be avoided to? (A Increase revenue B Reduce wait times C Save supplies D Improve billing)

Reduce wait times

No-show appointments should be? (A Ignored B Documented C Deleted D Billed automatically)

Documented

Copayment is collected? (A After visit B Before visit C Monthly D Yearly)

Before visit

ICD-10 codes describe? (A Procedures B Diagnoses C Providers D Drugs)

Diagnoses

CPT codes describe? (A Diagnoses B Procedures C Supplies D Insurance plans)

Procedures

EOB stands for? (A Explanation of Benefits B Electronic Office Billing C Emergency Order Billing D Employer Obligation Bill)

Explanation of Benefits

Informed consent must be obtained by? (A Medical assistant B Provider C Nurse D Front desk)

Provider

A minor can consent to care when? (A Parent unavailable B Emergency situation C Routine visit D School physical)

Emergency situation

Implied consent occurs when a patient? (A Signs form B Nods head C Cooperates with procedure D Refuses care)

Cooperates with procedure

Abandonment occurs when? (A Care is delayed B Provider stops care without notice C Patient leaves AMA D Referral made)

Provider stops care without notice