MedSurg 2 Exam 1

What should be monitored in a patient with Afib and diabetes on atenolol?

Blood glucose, blood pressure, and apical pulse rate.

How does a beta blocker like atenolol affect symptoms of hypoglycemia?

It masks the symptoms of hypoglycemia.

What are high cholesterol labs indicative of good health?

High HDL and low LDL.

What clinical signs suggest a female client may be experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Indigestion, anxiety, nausea and vomiting, pain down arm, and neck pain.

What distinguishes a hypertensive emergency from a hypertensive urgency?

Emergency involves target organ damage; urgency may not but suggests potential target damage.

What are common symptoms of acute coronary syndrome?

Fatigue, dyspnea, syncope.

Which lab tests are critical for diagnosing a myocardial infarction?

Troponin, CK-MB, myoglobin.

What is the recommended duration and frequency of exercise for cardiac health?

30 minutes a day for 5 days a week.

What defines the DASH diet?

Grilled foods, whole grains, low sodium, high fiber, fruits, and vegetables.

What triggers stable angina and how can it be relieved?

It is alleviated with rest and nitroglycerin.

Why is aspirin prescribed to a patient with a history of myocardial infarction?

To prevent platelet aggregation.

What complications are associated with smoking and coronary artery disease (CAD)?

Vasoconstriction, poor blood supply, increased carbon monoxide levels, decreased oxygen levels, increased platelet adhesion, and increased blood pressure and heart rate.

What are modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease?

Hypertension, smoking cessation, controlling diabetes, lifestyle changes to decrease cholesterol, and increasing exercise.

What is a causative factor of rheumatic endocarditis?

Streptococcus bacteria (strep).

What are two clinical manifestations of infective endocarditis?

Osler nodes (painful nodules) and Janeway lesions (rash/redness).

What to educate a patient with a pacemaker about to avoid complications?

Limit arm activity to prevent lead displacement.

What should a patient experiencing exacerbation of pulmonary edema be positioned?

High Fowler's position and provide oxygen.

What is the primary difference between cardioversion and defibrillation?

Cardioversion is synchronized with the patient's rhythm; defibrillation resets the heart rhythm.

What should be prepared for a patient with symptomatic sinus bradycardia who does not respond to atropine?

Preparation for pacemaker insertion.

What medication is essential for long-term management after a mechanical valve replacement?

Long-term anticoagulants.

What are clinical manifestations of mitral valve prolapse?

Palpitations, dizziness, shortness of breath, fatigue, and anxiety.

What discharge medications might a patient post-MI receive for heart failure?

Statin, aspirin, and ACE inhibitors.

What can cause infective endocarditis?

Staphylococcus bacteria (staph).

What treatment may be necessary for a patient with atrial fibrillation who does not respond to medications?

Elective cardioversion.

What instructions should be given to an older adult taking oral diuretics for heart failure?

Take in the morning to avoid night urination, rise slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension, and monitor potassium levels.

What is IV adenosine used to treat?

Sinus tachycardia.

What precautions should be taken after a patient receives an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)?

Incisional care, monitoring for signs of infection, notifying of any irregular rhythms, and emergency preparedness.

What patients are at high risk for heart failure?

Patients over 65 years old.

What is the first sign of dehydration?

Thirst.

What is the Western blot test used for?

To indicate the presence of HIV.

What is a common early manifestation of herpes zoster (shingles)?

It occurs when chickenpox lays dormant in the spinal cord and manifests due to stress or trauma.

What medication is best to use within 24-48 hours of herpes zoster eruption?

Acyclovir.

What lesion type presents with honey-crusted lesions, primarily in children?

Impetigo.

What is the treatment protocol for scabies?

Apply treatment from the neck down, usually one application is sufficient with a repeat after one week.

What precautions should be taken for a patient with C. difficile infection?

Contact precautions.

What common condition is shown by elevated blue/black lesions in the ear?

Melanoma.

What should nursing care for Pemphigus vulgaris focus on?

Disturbed body image, risk for infection, acute pain, and impaired skin integrity.