Large Animal VTNE

Cattle and swine display what type of estrous cycle?

A. Polyestrous

B. Seasonally polyestrous

C. Diestrous

D. Monoestrous

Polyestrous

Which animal has a cotyledonary placenta?

A. Cat

B. Dog

C. Horse

D. Sheep

Sheep

A pregnant mare has what kind of placentation?

A. Zonary

B. Cotyledonary

C. Diffuse

D. Discoid

Diffuse

In dairy cattle the teats and udders are gently washed before milking to stimulate the release of ____, which causes milk let-down.

A. Adrenalin

B. Norepinephrine

C. Dopamine

D. Oxytocin

Oxytocin

Clinical ketosis in dairy cattle is most common in

A. First-call heifers

B. Fat cows

C. Dairy bulls

D. Steers

Fat cows

Milk fever in dairy cows is typically treated with

A. IV glucose

B. IV calcium

C. Atropine

D. Antibiotics

IV calcium

What is called the "knee" in the forelimb of a horse would be called the ___ in the human.

A. Hip joint

B. Wrist joint

C. Finger joint

D. Knee joint

Wrist joint

What abdominal organ is absent in the horse and rat?

A. Right kidney

B. Gall bladder

C. Pancreas

D. Cecum

Gall bladder

What is the average frequency of ruminations for ruminants?

A. 2/minute

B. 10/minute

C. 1/hour

D. 5/hour

2/minute

What is the most common site of feed impactions in the horse?

A. Sternal flexure

B. Diaphragmatic flexure

C. Stomach

D. Pelvic flexure

Pelvic flexure

Which animal does not have a gall bladder?

A. Goat

B. Donkey

C. Cat

D. Sheep

Donkey

Ruminants have what type of placentation?

A. Cotyledonary

B. Zonary

C. Diffuse

D. Discoid

Cotyledonary

When does ovulation occur in the cow?

A. Midestrus

B. After estrus

C. 1 to 2 days after estrus

D. 12 hours after standing heat

12 hours after standing heat

Claws, hooves, and horns are made up of which type of cell?

A. Keratinized

B. Agglutinated

C. Calcified

D. Crystallized

Keratinized

The average rate of equine hoof growth per month is

A. 2 inches

B. 1/2 inch

C. 1 inch

D. 1/4 inch

1/4 inch

Adult cattle have how many upper incisors?

A. 6

B. 4

C. 0

D. 5

0

A cloven-hoofed animal stands on which digits?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 4 and 5

3 and 4

A cloven-hoofed animal has how many phalanges on each digit?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

3

A common equine disease of the digit in horses is

A. Navicular disease

B. EIA

C. Phalangeal disease

D. Tripping syndrome

Navicular disease

What is the value of X in this cow's dentition chart? I 0/3; C 0/1; PM 3/3-4; M X/3

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

3

Horses and ruminants gain much of their energy from a product produced by microbes during fermentation. What is this product?

A. Lipids

B. Volatile fatty acids

C. Amylase

D. Trypsinogen

Volatile fatty acids

Fermentation in the horse occurs in what two portions of the digestive tract?

A. Cecum and large colon (ventral and dorsal colons)

B. Ileum and jejunum

C. Duodenum and large colon (ventral and dorsal colons)

D. Cecum and rectum

Cecum and large colon (ventral and dorsal colons)

In the bovine, ingesta freely moves back and forth between the rumen and the

A. Omasum

B. Abomasum

C. Reticulum

D. Duodenum

Reticulum

Which of these species does not possess a gall bladder?

A. Pig

B. Horse

C. Goat

D. Dog

Horse

How many bones are found in the normal equine carpus?

A. 1-2

B. 3-4

C. 6-7

D. 9-10

6-7

What type of hormone is bovine somatotropin (BST)?

A. Estrogen

B. Growth hormone

C. Prolactin

D. Insulin

Growth hormone

What structure is not part of the "foot" of the horse?

A. Hoof and corium

B. Distal end of the proximal phalanx

C. Distal phalanx

D. Navicular bone

Distal end of the proximal phalanx

What is the largest organ in the equine body?

A. Lungs

B. Liver

C. Skin

D. Brain

Skin

What structure is located most distal on a horse's leg?

A. Ergot

B. Elbow joint

C. Chestnut

D. Withers

Ergot

Where is the sensitive laminae of an equine hoof located?

A. Frog

B. Wall

C. White line

D. Bars

White line

Founder in horses is another name for

A. Foot rot

B. Laminitis

C. Ringbone

D. Thrush

Laminitis

In the equine, what term describes a degenerative condition of the frog associated with filth?

A. Gravel

B. Thrush

C. Toe crack

D. Corns

Thrush

In the equine, what term describes a drainage tract resulting from a crack in the white line?

A. Corn

B. White line disease

C. Gravel

D. Seedy toe

Gravel

During episodes of chronic laminitis, what bone in the equine foot may rotate downward, pressing against the sole causing pain?

A. Navicular

B. Coffin

C. Short pastern

D. Cannon

Coffin

The huge, comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen is the

A. Cecum

B. Colon

C. Rectum

D. Ileum

Cecum

In what portion of the ruminant digestive system does most microbial fermentation take place?

A. Abomasum

B. Duodenum

C. Rumen

D. Omasum

Rumen

In the ruminant animal, the fermentation process produces gas in the rumen, which, if not eliminated, can cause a condition called bloat. What instrument can be used to relieve this condition?

A. Emasculator

B. Trocar

C. Burdizzo

D. Rochester-Carmalt forceps

Trocar

Rumination is a cycle of activity composed of four phases. Which of the following is not included in this process?

A. Eructation

B. Remastication

C. Redeglutition

D. Reurination

Reurination

Where does fermentation occur in nonruminant herbivores, such as the horse?

A. Jejunum and ileum

B. Cecum and colon

C. Ileum and cecum

D. Rumen and cecum

Cecum and colon

Hardware disease is usually associated with ingestion of nails, wire, or other sharp objects. The portion of the digestive tract that collects these objects is the

A. Reticulum

B. Omasum

C. Rumen

D. Abomasum

Reticulum

What animals have a dental pad in place of upper incisors and canines?

A. Horse, cow

B. Cow, goat

C. Dog, sheep

D. Cat, horse

Cow, goat

The digestive sustem of herbivores

A. Contains an enlarged microbial fermentation vat

B. Is generally simpler and narrower than that of carnivores

C. Is made to handle both plant and animal food sources

D. Relies mainly on enzymatic digestion

Contains an enlarged microbial fermentation vat

The smallest ruminant forestomach, and the one most commonly involved in hardware disease, is the

A. Abomasum

B. Omasum

C. Reticulum

D. Rumen

Reticulum

The true stomach of the ruminant is the

A. Abomasum

B. Omasum

C. Reticulum

D. Rumen

Abomasum

The largest ruminant forestomach is the

A. Abomasum

B. Omasum

C. Reticulum

D. Rumen

Rumen

The ruminant forestomach that dehydrates and grinds feed is the

A. Abomasum

B. Omasum

C. Reticulum

D. Rumen

Omasum

The process or structure in a newborn ruminant animal that allows milk to bypass the rumen and reticulum and go directly to the omasum is the

A. Eructation

B. Esophageal groove

C. Reticular folds

D. Rumination

Esophageal groove

In which of theses animals is microbial fermentation most important in the digestive process?

A. Cat

B. Dog

C. Horse

D. Pig

Horse

The periodic elimination of excess gas from the ruminant forestomach is termed

A. Eructation

B. Mastication

C. Prehension

D. Rumination

Eructation

The wall of the hoof grows distally from the

A. Coronary band

B. Chestnut

C. Frog

D. Periople

Coronary band

What hoof structure normally has the firmest consistency?

A. Frog

B. Periople

C. Sole

D. Wall

Wall

What structure is located most proximal on a horse's leg?

A. Chestnut

B. Coronary band

C. Ergot

D. Frog

Chestnut

When a horse is standing on firm ground, the only portion of its hoof that normally contacts the ground is the

A. Coronary band

B. Sole

C. Wall

D. White line

Wall

The number of teats on the mammary glands of different animals varies. List the correct number of teats for mare.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 12

D. 14

2

List the correct number of teats for a cow.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 12

D. 14

4

List the correct number of teats for a sow.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 12

D. 14

14

The suspensory apparatus of the udder includes the

A. Symphyseal tendon

B. Urethralis muscle

C. Deep digital flexor tendon

D. Proximal digital annular ligament

Symphyseal tendon

In cows, the "milk vein" is the

A. External pudendal

B. Femoral

C. Lateral thoracic

D. Subcutaneous abdominal

Subcutaneous abdominal

Production of colostrum is initiated by

A. Specialized endothelial cells

B. The fetus

C. A response to hormonal influences

D. The portal hepatic system

A response to hormonal influences

Colostrum provides which type of immunity?

A. Active

B. Passive

C. Cellular

D. Acquired

Passive

In cows, production of colostrum begins

A. During the last 2 to 3 weeks of gestation

B. When the calf suckles

C. During the first postparturient estrous cycle

D. During the first trimester of pregnancy

During the last 2 to 3 weeks of gestation

The quality of a mare's colostrum can be evaluated by all of the following except

A. Stickiness

B. Specific gravity

C. Smell

D. Direct measurement of IgG in the fluid

Smell

Agalactia is a

A. Commercially produced milk replacer

B. Lack of milk production

C. Rejection of a newborn by the dam

D. Blood-tinged colostrum

Lack of milk production

A cow with mastitis should

A. Be milked frequently

B. Be milked from all quarters except the affected one

C. Not be milked at all

D. Be immediately sent to have her teat removed

Be milked frequently

The agent that aids in secretion and release of milk from the mammary gland after parturition is

A. Oxytetracycline

B. Progesterone

C. Oxytocin

D. Prednisolone

Oxytocin

What is not a common cause of enlarged mammary glands in horses?

A. Mastitis

B. Abscess

C. Periparturient udder edema (physiologic)

D. Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis

Each forelimb of animals is innervated by a brachial plexus that contains cervical and thoracic nerves. In what species is the brachial plexus not composed of the last three cervical nerves and the first thoracic nerve?

A. Horses

B. Cattle

C. Pigs

D. Dogs

Horses

Damage to what nerve, most commonly affected by dystocias, results in the inability to adduct the rear legs of a cow?

A. Obturator

B. Tibial

C. Sciatic

D. Radial

Obturator

Raising a horse's head prevents kicking by extending the neck, which increases the tone of the extensor muscles of the forelimbs and decreases the tone of the extensors in the hind limbs. This postural reaction is referred to as the

A. Tonic eye reflex

B. Extensor postural thrust

C. Tonic neck reflex

D. Auditory obtundation

Tonic neck reflex

What is the normal average gestation period of horses?

A. 63 days

B. 148 days

C. 285 days

D. 336 days

336 days

How often does estrus occur in normal, nonpregnant cows?

A. Every 10 to 15 days

B. Every 19 to 23 days

C. Every 30 to 35 days

D. Every 285 to 290 days

Every 19 to 23 days

What term best describes the estrous cycle of cows?

A. Biannually polyestrous

B. Seasonally polyestrous

C. Polyestrous

D. Monoestrous

Polyestrous

When is puberty reached in a cow?

A. When she is 6 months old

B. When her reproductive organs become functional

C. After her first act of copulation

D. When she is 1 year old

When her reproductive organs become functional

Sperm can be fertile for up to how many hours in the reproductive tract of a ewe?

A. 2

B. 10

C. 48

D. 72

48

When is the usual breeding season for ewes?

A. Summer

B. Fall

C. Winter

D. Spring

Fall

What is the normal average length of gestation in a sow?

A. 21 days

B. 114 days

C. 150 days

D. 285 days

114 days

In ruminants, the cotyledon of the placenta attaches to what structure on the uterus to form placentome?

A. Zonule

B. Allantois

C. Chorioallantois

D. Caruncle

Caruncle

What is the normal average length of gestation in goats?

A. 21 days

B. 114 days

C. 150 days

D. 285 days

150 days

In what two species is cryptorchidism most prevalent?

A. Cats and dogs

B. Cattle and goats

C. Horses and pigs

D. Sheep and dogs

Horses and pigs

The os penis of the dog and cat and the ossa cordis found in the heart of ruminants are examples of

A. Pneumatic bones

B. Sesamoid bones

C. Splanchnic bones

D. Flat bones

Splanchnic bones

Which of these species has a lobulated kidney?

A. Horses

B. Sheep

C. Goats

D. Cattle

Cattle

The breed of goat with long, wide, pendulous ears and a Roman nose is the

A. Toggenburg

B. Nubian

C. Saanen

D. French alpine

Nubian

The breed of goat with almost no external ears is the

A. Oberhasli

B. French alpine

C. LaMancha

D. Saanen

LaMancha

The all-white breed of goat is the

A. Saanen

B. French alpine

C. LaMancha

D. Toggenburg

Saanen

The breed of pig that is red is the

A. Berkshire

B. Duroc

C. Yorkshire

D. Landrace

Duroc

The breed of pig that is white and has erect ears is the

A. Landrace

B. Duroc

C. Yorkshire

D. Landrace

Yorkshire

The breed of dairy cow whose milk contains the highest percentage of butterfat is the

A. Holstein

B. Ayrshire

C. Guernsey

D. Jersey

Jersey

The breed of dairy cow that is usually black and white is the

A. Holstein

B. Guernsey

C. Ayrshire

D. Jersey

Holstein

The breed of chicken known for its white eggs is the

A. Rhode Island red

B. Leghorn

C. White Plymouth rock

D. New Hampshire

Leghorn

Which breed of cattle is a beef breed?

A. Guernsey

B. Holstein

C. Jersey

D. Angus

Angus

The breed of beef cattle that is black and polled is the

A. Limousin

B. Angus

C. Charolais

D. Hereford

Angus

What breed of sheep is used predominantly for meat?

A. Merino

B. Romney marsh

C. Suffolk

D. Karakul

Suffolk

The dairy breed with the highest average milk yield is the

A. Holstein

B. Guernsey

C. Jersey

D. Ayrshire

Holstein

Of the following horse breeds, which is in the pony class?

A. Arabian

B. Welsh

C. Morgan

D. Appaloosa

Welsh

What horse breed is considered a draft horse?

A. Clydesdale

B. Standardbred

C. Thoroughbred

D. American saddlebred

Clydesdale

What horse breed is used for harness racing?

A. Standardbred

B. Thoroughbred

C. Percheron

D. Palomino

Standardbred

The breed of beef cattle noted for its heat tolerance is the

A. Angus

B. Longhorn

C. Hereford

D. Brahman

Brahman

The breed of chicken bred for meat is the

A. Cornish

B. Leghorn

C. Rhode Island red

D. Whyandotte

Cornish

High mountain or brisket disease of cattle is caused by

A. Parasitic infection of the lung

B. Pasteurella infection

C. Hypoxia from low oxygen pressure

D. Cardiotoxic plants

Hypoxia from low oxygen pressure

A previously nonvaccinated mature horse that receives a traumatic wound that becomes contaminated should be given

A. Tetanus antitoxin only

B. Tetanus toxoid only

C. Both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid

D. Local wound therapy only

Both tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid