Maternal Newborn Nursing Exam 1 Test Blueprint

A series of flashcards created to help study the key concepts from the Maternal Newborn Nursing Exam 1 Test Blueprint.

What is the primary cognitive level targeted in Exam 1, and what percentage does it represent?

The primary cognitive level is Application, accounting for 40-45\% of the exam questions.

Which content area carries the highest weight on the exam?

Reproductive Health Disorders & Menstrual Conditions, which accounts for 30-35\% of the questions.

What are the three main types of question formats expected on the exam?

1. Multiple choice
2. Select all that apply (SATA)
3. Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)

Which menstrual condition involves the growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus?

Endometriosis.

Identify the primary manifestation associated with Dysmenorrhea.

Painful menstruation, often described as cramping in the lower abdomen.

What percentage of the exam covers Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

The distribution is 25-30\%.

Which STI is characterized by a painless chancre during its primary stage?

Syphilis.

Name two STIs that are frequently asymptomatic but can lead to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID).

1. Chlamydia
2. Gonorrhea

What is a critical public health consideration when treating a patient for an STI?

Partner treatment to prevent reinfection and further spread.

In the ACHES mnemonic for contraceptive warning signs, what does the 'A' stand for?

Abdominal pain (severe), which may indicate a problem with the liver or gallbladder.

In the ACHES mnemonic for contraceptive warning signs, what does the 'C' stand for?

Chest pain or shortness of breath, which may indicate a pulmonary embolism or cardiac issue.

In the ACHES mnemonic for contraceptive warning signs, what does the 'H' stand for?

Headaches (severe), which may be a sign of hypertension or an impending stroke.

In the ACHES mnemonic for contraceptive warning signs, what does the 'E' stand for?

Eye problems (blurring or loss of vision), which may indicate vascular complications or stroke.

In the ACHES mnemonic for contraceptive warning signs, what does the 'S' stand for?

Severe leg pain, which is often a warning sign of a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).

What is the probability of offspring being affected (aa) if both parents are carriers of an autosomal recessive disorder?

There is a 25\% chance of the offspring being affected.

What is the probability of offspring being affected if one parent has an autosomal dominant disorder (Aa) and the other is unaffected (aa)?

There is a 50\% chance of the offspring being affected.

At how many weeks of gestation does the fetal heart typically begin to beat?

At approximately 4 weeks of gestation.

What medication is administered to prevent Rh isoimmunization in an Rh-negative mother?

Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM).

When is the standard timing for the first dose of RhoGAM during pregnancy?

Typically at 28 weeks of gestation.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum in early pregnancy?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

Which hormone is known for relaxing smooth muscles and maintaining the uterine lining to prevent miscarriage?

Progesterone.

Identify the difference between a 'Threatened Miscarriage' and an 'Inevitable Miscarriage'.

• Threatened: Bleeding occurs but the cervix remains closed.
• Inevitable: Bleeding occurs and the cervix is dilated.

What term refers to the death of a fetus in utero after 20 weeks of gestation?

Intrauterine Fetal Demise (IUFD).

What biological process is the focus of the 'Analysis/Clinical Judgment' cognitive level (25-30\% of exam)?

Synthesizing data to prioritize care and make safe clinical decisions.

What is a key patient education point for someone taking Combined Oral Contraceptives (COCs)?

Take the pill at the same time every day to maintain consistent hormone levels.

Which STI presents with painful, vesicular (blister-like) lesions?

Genital Herpes (HSV).

What is the recommended screening approach for HIV in pregnant women?

Universal screening is recommended as part of routine prenatal care.

What is a major complication of untreated Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Infertility or an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy due to tubal scarring.

Which hormone stimulates the growth of uterine tissue and breast ducts during pregnancy?

Estrogen.

How should a nurse approach Genetic Counseling to remain ethical?

By providing non-directive counseling, allowing the family to make their own informed decisions.

What is the 'fetal period' of development?

From 9 weeks gestation until birth.

What is 'Organogenesis' and when does it occur?

The formation of organs, occurring primarily during the embryonic stage (weeks 3-8).

Identify a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

Subjective signs identified by the client, such as amenorrhea, nausea, or breast tenderness.

Identify a probable sign of pregnancy.

Objective signs observed by a provider, such as a positive pregnancy test, Goodell's sign, or Chadwick's sign.

Identify a positive sign of pregnancy.

Diagnostic signs that confirm a fetus, such as fetal heart tones or visualization via ultrasound.

What is the priority nursing action for a patient with a suspected STI?

Obtaining cultures/testing and educating on the prevention of transmission.

Why is it important to recognize 'Red Flags' in maternal nursing?

To identify life-threatening complications like ectopic pregnancy or severe preeclampsia early.

What does the exam blueprint suggest about 'Memorization'?

Avoid rote memorization; instead focus on understanding patterns and applying concepts.

Which manifestation is common in patients with Endometriosis regarding their menstrual cycle?

Chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea that may worsen over time.

What is the primary goal of nursing care during pregnancy loss?

Providing emotional support and ensuring the physical safety/stabilization of the mother.

Which STI can be cured with antibiotics but often reoccurs due to lack of partner treatment?

Chlamydia or Gonorrhea.

What constitutes 'Application' level thinking in a nursing question?

Using known information (like drug side effects) to determine how to care for a specific patient scenario.

When is RhoGAM given post-delivery?

Within 72 hours of birth, provided the neonate is Rh-positive.

What is the percentage distribution of Contraception and Family Planning on the exam?

15-20\%.

What should a nurse assess for in a patient with PID to determine if they are worsening?

Fever, increased pelvic pain, and signs of sepsis.

Which stage of fetal development is most vulnerable to teratogens?

The embryonic stage (weeks 3 through 8).

What is a key milestone at 20 weeks of gestation?

The mother usually feels movement (quickening), and the fetus is at the level of the umbilicus.

In genetic testing, what does 'Carrier Status' mean?

The individual has one copy of a recessive gene mutation but does not manifest the condition.

What is a common manifestation of Syphilis in the secondary stage?

A generalized rash, often appearing on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

What is a main nursing study tip for SATA questions?

Practice 'SATA-style' thinking by identifying all correct interventions rather than just the 'best' one.