PCafe

When is an Instrument Rating Required?

When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions below VFR minimums (§61.3), carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights over 50 NM or at night (§61.133), flying in Class A airspace (§91.135), or special VFR between sunset and sunrise (§91.157).

How can instrument time be logged?

Instrument time can be logged only when operating solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated conditions. An authorized instructor may log instrument time while conducting instruction in actual IMC (§61.51).

Can a flight simulator or FTD be used for a flight review?

Yes, if it is used in an approved Part 142 training course and represents an aircraft for which the pilot is rated.

Recent flight experience required to carry passengers as PIC (§61.57)

3 takeoffs & landings in the last 90 days in the same category, class and type (if required). For night flights: 3 full-stop takeoffs & landings between sunset and sunrise. Can be done in an approved FFS or FTD at a Part 142 training center.

What is required to act as PIC under IFR or in IMC? (§61.57(c))

'6 HITS' within the past 6 calendar months: 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting & tracking using navigational systems. Can be done in an FFS, ATD, or FTD.

What if an instrument pilot does not meet currency requirements?

If outside 6 months: Pilot has an additional 6 months to regain currency with a safety pilot. If outside 12 months: An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required by a CFII, examiner, or other authorized person.

Safety pilot requirements for regaining instrument currency

Must hold at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category/class, must have a valid medical certificate or BasicMed, and aircraft must have a dual control system.

Minimum aeronautical experience for an Instrument Rating (§61.65)

50 hours cross-country PIC time (10 hours in airplanes), 40 hours actual/simulated instrument time (15 hours with CFII), 250 NM cross-country flight with 3 different instrument approaches & IFR flight plan, 3 hours of instrument training in last 2 calendar months before the test.

Maximum simulator time allowed for an Instrument Rating

Full Flight Simulator (FFS) or FTD: Max 30 hours (if under Part 142), Max 20 hours (if not under Part 142). Aviation Training Devices (ATD): Max 10 hours (Basic ATD), Max 20 hours (Advanced ATD).

Flight review requirements to act as PIC (§61.56)

Every 24 calendar months, 1 hour of flight training + 1 hour of ground training, conducted by an authorized instructor.

Substitutes for a Flight Review

A proficiency check or practical test for a certificate, rating, or operating privilege; a practical test for a flight instructor certificate, rating renewal, or reinstatement; completion of an FAA WINGS phase; flight instructor renewal under Part 61.197 exempts the pilot from the ground portion.

What areas must an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) cover?

ATC clearances and procedures, flight by reference to instruments, navigation systems, instrument approach procedures, emergency operations, post-flight procedures.

What is the IFR recency exemption for Part 121 & 135 pilots?

A PIC employed by a Part 121 or 135 operator is exempt from Part 61.57 IFR recency requirements when flying for that operator under Part 91, 121, or 135, provided they comply with the operator’s FAA-approved training schedule.

Requirements for logging instrument time using a simulator or training device (§61.51)

An authorized instructor must observe and sign the logbook for training towards a certificate or rating. For IFR recency, log: type of training device, time spent, training content.

Requirements for logging an instrument approach procedure (IAP)

Must operate solely by reference to instruments (§61.51(g)(1)). Must be established on each approach segment down to minimums: Initial (IAF), Intermediate, and Final, unless radar vectored to final. In simulated IMC, conditions must continue to MDA or DA. In actual IMC, if VMC occurs during final approach, the approach can still be logged.

What is the “IM SAFE” checklist for preflight self-assessment?

I - Illness; M - Medication; S - Stress; A - Alcohol; F - Fatigue; E - Emotion.

What is the “PAVE” risk management model?

P - Pilot (health, proficiency, currency); A - Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance); V - Environment (weather, terrain, airport conditions); E - External pressures (meetings, passengers waiting, etc.).

What is the “DECIDE” model for aeronautical decision-making?

D - Detect a change; E - Estimate the need to act; C - Choose a desirable outcome; I - Identify solutions; D - Do the necessary actions; E - Evaluate the results.

What personal documents are required for flight?

Pilot Certificate, Medical Certificate (or US Driver’s License as permitted by §61.113 & §61.23), Authorized Photo ID (passport, driver’s license, etc.), Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit (for flights outside the US).

What aircraft documents are required for flight? ("ARROW")

A - Airworthiness Certificate; R - Registration Certificate; R - Radio Station License (for flights outside the US); O - Operating Limitations & Information (in AFM); W - Weight & Balance Data (aircraft specific).

What maintenance inspections are required for IFR flight? ("AVIATES")

A - Airworthiness Directive (AD) required inspections (§39); V - VOR check every 30 days (IFR only; §91.171); I - Inspections (§91.409): Annual inspection – every 12 calendar months, 100-hour inspection if carrying passengers for hire or providing instruction in provided aircraft; A - Altimeter, altitude reporting, and static system – every 24 months; T - Transponder – every 24 months; E - ELT (§91.207): Inspected every 12 calendar months; S - Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) required inspections.

What is included in a passenger briefing? ("SAFETY")

S - Seat belts; A - Air vents location & operation; F - Fire extinguisher; E - Exit doors; T - Traffic; Y - Your questions? Speak up!

What is included in a taxi briefing? ("ARCH")

A - Assigned/planned runway; R - Route; C - Crossings and hold short instructions; H - Hot spots & hazards.

What is included in a takeoff briefing? ("DEPARTS")

D - Departure review; E - Establish expectations; P - Plan/special considerations; A - Alternate; R - Runway conditions; T - Trouble/tactics; S - Speak up!

What preflight information is required for IFR? ("NW KRAFT")

N - NOTAMs; W - Weather reports and forecasts; K - Known traffic delays; R - Runway length of intended use; A - Alternatives if flight cannot be completed; F - Fuel requirements; T - Takeoff and landing performance data.

What are the IFR flight plan requirements?

Filing an IFR flight plan and receiving an ATC clearance (§91.173).

How can an IFR flight plan be filed?

Via FSS, Online, EFB Apps, ATC, or through pop-up IFR clearances.

When must an IFR flight plan be filed?

At least 30 minutes prior to departure.

When can an IFR flight plan be canceled?

Automatically upon landing at towered airports; pilot must contact ATC/FSS to cancel at non-towered airports; can cancel in-flight if out of IMC and Class A airspace.

What is the 1-2-3 Rule for determining if a destination alternate is required?

An alternate is not required if an instrument approach is published and available; ceiling is at least 2000’ above airport elevation; visibility is at least 3 SM.

What are the alternate airport minimum weather conditions?

Precision approach – 600 ft ceiling & 2 SM visibility; Non-precision approach – 800 ft ceiling & 2 SM visibility; No instrument approach – allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing under VFR.

What are the IFR minimum fuel requirements (§91.167)?

Sufficient fuel to fly from departure to destination, from destination to most distant alternate (if required), and 45 minutes of cruise fuel remaining.

How do GPS capabilities affect alternate filing?

Non-WAAS GPS can base flight plan on GPS approach at either destination or alternate, but not both; WAAS without baro-VNAV may use LNAV or circling minimums at alternate; WAAS with baro-VNAV may use LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3.

What are the IFR cruising altitudes in uncontrolled airspace below FL290?

0°-179° magnetic course → ODD thousands; 180°-359° magnetic course → EVEN thousands.

What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290?

Non-RVSM: 0°-179° → Flight Levels at 4,000’ intervals; RVSM: 0°-179° → Odd FLs at 2,000’ intervals. 180°-359° → Even FLs at 2,000’ intervals.

What are the IFR takeoff minimums for Part 121, 125, 129, and 135 operations if no minimums are prescribed?

1-2 engine aircraft: 1 SM visibility; More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility; Part 91: No takeoff minimums mandated.

What are the standard IFR departure obstacle clearance requirements?

Cross DER at least 35 ft AGL, reach 400 ft AGL before turning, climb at least 200 feet per nautical mile, or as published.

How can you convert FPNM to Feet Per Minute (FPM) for climb?

FPM = (FPNM) × (Groundspeed) / 60.

What are the two types of Departure Procedures (DPs)?

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departure (SID).

Are pilots required to accept a SID?

No, pilots can avoid SIDs by stating 'NO SIDs' in the flight plan remarks.

What is a Diverse Departure?

A standard IFR departure that allows turns in any direction while maintaining obstacle clearance when no ODP is published.

When is an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) developed?

When an airport’s Diverse Departure assessment finds that the standard climb gradient does not provide obstacle clearance.

What is a Diverse Vector Area (DVA)?

ATC can issue radar vectors instead of the pilot flying the ODP; allows vectors below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude while ensuring obstacle clearance.

What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?

A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC, where the pilot performs climbing turns over the airport until reaching a published altitude.

What does "CRAFT" stand for in an IFR departure clearance?

C - Clearance limit, R - Route, A - Altitude, F - Frequency, T - Transponder code.

What does "clearance void time" mean in an IFR departure?

The time at which your clearance expires, and you may no longer take off after that time.

What does “Hold for release” mean in an IFR departure clearance?

It means you cannot take off until you are specifically released for departure by ATC.

What is an "Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)?"

It is a runway release time given to aircraft under traffic management programs at busy airports.

What is an abbreviated departure clearance?

A clearance that states: “Cleared (...) as filed (...)”.

What is a STAR (Standard Terminal Arrival Route)?

An ATC-coded arrival procedure that connects the enroute structure to a point from which an approach to landing can be made.

What are the benefits of using a STAR?

Reduces pilot/controller workload, minimizes radio communications, simplifies clearance delivery.

How should pilots fly a STAR?

Comply with lateral routing and published speed restrictions, unless otherwise instructed by ATC.

What does “Climb via (the SID's name)” authorize?

Compliance with lateral path, speed, and altitude restrictions of the SID.

What does “Descend via (the STAR’s name)” authorize?

Allows pilots to descend at their discretion to meet published restrictions and navigate laterally on the STAR.

What happens when a “Climb/Descend via” clearance is issued?

Speed restrictions previously assigned are deleted, but pilots must still comply with published speed restrictions in the procedure.

What is the meaning of "Expect" in reference to altitudes or flight levels?

It is not a clearance, and it is used for planning purposes only.

What does "Maintain (altitude)" mean in an IFR clearance?

It is normally preceded by the phrase "climb and" or "descend and," meaning the pilot should begin climbing or descending to the assigned altitude immediately after receiving the clearance.

What does “Cross (fix) at (altitude)” mean?

It means to start climb/descent at pilot discretion and comply with the crossing altitude restriction at a specified fix.

What is a cruise clearance in IFR operations?

A cruise clearance allocates a block of airspace to the flight, starting at the minimum IFR altitude and extending to the altitude specified in the clearance.

What are the minimum IFR altitudes in mountainous and non-mountainous areas?

Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above highest obstacle; Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above highest obstacle.

What does DA/H mean in IFR altitudes?

DA: Decision Altitude; H: Decision Height, the height above the runway threshold for a non-precision approach.

What is the MAA (Maximum Authorized Altitude)?

The maximum altitude a pilot can fly under IFR in a specific airspace.

What is the MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude)?

The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an aircraft must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA.

What is the MDA/H (Minimum Descent Altitude / Height)?

MDA: The lowest altitude a pilot can descend to on a non-precision approach; H: Minimum Descent Height, similar to MDA but for approaches with a height above the runway threshold.

What is the MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude)?

The lowest altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.

What is the MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)?

The lowest altitude in effect between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

What is the MORA (Minimum Off Route Altitude)?

Provides obstruction clearance within 10 NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10 NM radius at the ends of airways.

What is the MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude)?

The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection with a radio navigational aid (NAVAID) can be reliably determined.

What is the MTA (Minimum Turning Altitude)?

The lowest altitude at certain fixes that provides both vertical and lateral obstacle clearance during turns.

What is the MVA (Minimum Vectoring Altitude)?

The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft can be vectored by ATC radar.

What is the OROCA (Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude)?

It provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous areas and a 2,000 ft buffer in mountainous areas.

What are the two principles of a gyroscope?

Rigidity in space and precession.

How does the Attitude Indicator (AI) operate?

The AI operates on the principle of rigidity in space, providing bank and pitch information.

How does the Heading Indicator (HI) work?

The HI operates on rigidity in space and shows changes in heading, calibrated with a magnetic compass.

What do Turn Indicators show?

Turn coordinators show both rate-of-turn and rate-of-roll; turn-and-slip indicators show only the rate-of-turn.

How does the Altimeter work?

The altimeter is an aneroid barometer showing height above a given pressure level.

What is the "High to Low - Watch out below" rule for altimeter settings?

When transitioning from high-pressure to low-pressure areas, the altimeter may indicate a higher altitude than actual.

What are the different types of altitude?

Indicated Altitude, Pressure Altitude, Density Altitude, True Altitude, Absolute Altitude.

How does the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) work?

Indicates rate-of-climb in feet per minute, using a diaphragm connected to the static source.

What is the Instantaneous VSI (IVSI)?

Solves lag issues by adding vertical accelerometers for immediate feedback on rate-of-climb or descent.

How does the Airspeed Indicator (ASI) work?

Measures the difference between ram air pressure and ambient pressure, indicating airspeed based on dynamic pressure.

What are the types of airspeed?

Indicated Airspeed (IAS), Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), Equivalent Airspeed (EAS), True Airspeed (TAS), Mach Number, Ground Speed.

What are the markings on the airspeed indicator?

White Arc: Flap operating range; Green Arc: Normal operating range; Yellow Arc: Caution range; Red Line: Never Exceed Speed.

What are the key V-speeds?

Va: Design maneuvering speed, Vs: Stall speed, Vs0: Stall speed landing configuration, Vfe: Max flap extended speed, Vno: Max structural cruise speed.

What happens during Static Port Blockage?

ASI shows incorrect speeds, Altimeter freezes; VSI freezes at zero.

What happens during Pitot Tube Blockage?

Airspeed Indicator drops to zero, VSI reads 0 fpm.

What is checked during a Generic Instrument Taxi Check?

Magnetic Compass, NAV & Comm, GPS, EFIS Cockpits, Airspeed Indicator, Turn Coordinator, Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, Altimeter.

What does "DV MONA" stand for in relation to magnetic compass errors?

D: Deviation, V: Variation, M: Magnetic dip, O: Oscillation, N: Northerly turning error, A: Acceleration/Deceleration.

What is an Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)?

A system that provides reliable attitude and heading data using solid-state technology (no moving parts).

What does an Air Data Computer (ADC) do?

Replaces mechanical pitot-static instruments, providing airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

What is the function of a Flight Director?

Computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist in flight.

What is the role of a Flight Management System (FMS)?

Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to autopilot and flight director.

What is an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)?

Uses digital displays for critical flight data.

What is the minimum equipment required for VFR Day (A TOMATO FLAMES)?

A: Altimeter, T: Tachometer, O: Oil temp gauge, M: Manifold pressure gauge, A: Airspeed indicator, T: Temperature gauge, O: Oil pressure gauge, F: Fuel quantity gauge, L: Landing gear lights, A: Anticollision lights, M: Magnetic compass, E: ELT, S: Safety belt.

What is the minimum equipment required for VFR Night (FLAPS)?

F: Fuses, L: Landing light (if for hire), A: Anticollision lights, P: Position lights, S: Source of electrical power (battery).

What is required for flights beyond gliding distance over water?

Flotation device: One for each occupant, Pyrotechnic signaling device: At least one required.

What does "GRABCARD" stand for in IFR Day equipment?

G: Generator, R: Radios, A: Adjustable altimeter, B: Ball, C: Clock, A: Attitude indicator, R: Rate-of-turn indicator, D: Directional gyro.

What are the requirements for operating with inoperative items (§91.213)?

Inoperative equipment must be either removed or deactivated and placarded; no hazard may be caused.

What are the limitations of VOR?

Cone of confusion, Reverse sensing, Line-of-sight requirement.

What does "D.E.P.S." stand for when performing a VOR check?

D: Date, E: Error, P: Place, S: Signature.