PCafe

Here are your flashcards:

Front: When is an Instrument Rating Required?

Back:

• Acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions below VFR minimums (§61.3).

• Carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights over 50 NM or at night (§61.133).

• Flying in Class A airspace (§91.135).

• Special VFR between sunset and sunrise (§91.157).

Front: How can instrument time be logged?

Back:

• Only when operating solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated conditions.

• An authorized instructor may log instrument time while conducting instruction in actual IMC. (§61.51)

Front: Can a flight simulator or FTD be used for a flight review?

Back:
Yes, if:

• It is used in an approved Part 142 training course.

• It represents an aircraft for which the pilot is rated.

Front: Recent flight experience required to carry passengers as PIC (§61.57)

Back:

• 3 takeoffs & landings in the last 90 days in the same category, class, and type (if required).

• For night flights: 3 full-stop takeoffs & landings between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.

• Can be done in an approved FFS or FTD at a Part 142 training center.

Front: What is required to act as PIC under IFR or in IMC? (§61.57(c))

Back:
"6 HITS" within the past 6 calendar months:

• 6 instrument approaches.

• Holding procedures.

• Intercepting & tracking using navigational systems.

• Can be done in an FFS, ATD, or FTD.

Front: What if an instrument pilot does not meet currency requirements?

Back:

• If outside 6 months: Pilot has an additional 6 months to regain currency with a safety pilot.

• If outside 12 months: An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required by a CFII, examiner, or other authorized person.

Front: Safety pilot requirements for regaining instrument currency

Back:

• Must hold at least a private pilot certificate with appropriate category/class.

• Must have a valid medical certificate or BasicMed.

• Aircraft must have a dual control system.

Front: Minimum aeronautical experience for an Instrument Rating (§61.65)

Back:

• 50 hours cross-country PIC time (10 hours in airplanes).

• 40 hours actual/simulated instrument time (15 hours with CFII).

• 250 NM cross-country flight with 3 different instrument approaches & IFR flight plan.

• 3 hours of instrument training in last 2 calendar months before the test.

Front: Maximum simulator time allowed for an Instrument Rating

Back:

• Full Flight Simulator (FFS) or FTD:

  • Max 30 hours (if under Part 142).

  • Max 20 hours (if not under Part 142).

• Aviation Training Devices (ATD):

  • Max 10 hours (Basic ATD).

  • Max 20 hours (Advanced ATD).

Front: Flight review requirements to act as PIC (§61.56)

Back:

• Every 24 calendar months.

• 1 hour of flight training + 1 hour of ground training.

• Conducted by an authorized instructor.

Front: Substitutes for a Flight Review

Back:

• A proficiency check or practical test for a certificate, rating, or operating privilege.

• A practical test for a flight instructor certificate, rating renewal, or reinstatement.

• Completion of an FAA WINGS phase.

• Flight instructor renewal under Part 61.197 exempts the pilot from the ground portion.

Here are additional flashcards based on the new material:

Front: What areas must an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) cover?

Back:

• ATC clearances and procedures.

• Flight by reference to instruments.

• Navigation systems.

• Instrument approach procedures.

• Emergency operations.

• Post-flight procedures.

Front: What is the IFR recency exemption for Part 121 & 135 pilots?

Back:

• A PIC employed by a Part 121 or 135 operator is exempt from Part 61.57 IFR recency requirements when flying for that operator under Part 91, 121, or 135.

• The pilot must comply with the operator’s FAA-approved training schedule.

• To fly outside the airline, the pilot must meet standard “6 HITS” IFR currency.

Front: Requirements for logging instrument time using a simulator or training device (§61.51)

Back:

• An authorized instructor must observe and sign the logbook for training towards a certificate or rating.

• For IFR recency, log:

  • Type of training device.

  • Time spent.

  • Training content.

Front: Requirements for logging an instrument approach procedure (IAP)

Back:

1. Must operate solely by reference to instruments (§61.51(g)(1)).

2. Must be established on each approach segment down to minimums:

   • Initial (IAF), Intermediate, and Final, unless radar vectored to final.

3. In simulated IMC, conditions must continue to MDA or DA.

4. In actual IMC, if VMC occurs during final approach, the approach can still be logged.

Front: What is the “IM SAFE” checklist for preflight self-assessment?

Back:

• I - Illness – Do I have any symptoms?

• M - Medication – Have I taken any drugs?

• S - Stress – Am I under psychological pressure?

• A - Alcohol – 8 hours bottle to throttle; max 0.04% BAC (§91.17).

• F - Fatigue – Am I rested?

• E - Emotion – Am I emotionally stable?

Front: What is the “PAVE” risk management model?

Back:

• P - Pilot (health, proficiency, currency).

• A - Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance).

• V - Environment (weather, terrain, airport conditions).

• E - External pressures (meetings, passengers waiting, etc.).

Front: What is the “DECIDE” model for aeronautical decision-making?

Back:

• D - Detect a change.

• E - Estimate the need to act.

• C - Choose a desirable outcome.

• I - Identify solutions.

• D - Do the necessary actions.

• E - Evaluate the results.

Here are additional flashcards based on the new material:

Front: What personal documents are required for flight?

Back:

• Pilot Certificate

• Medical Certificate (or US Driver’s License as permitted by §61.113 & §61.23)

• Authorized Photo ID (passport, driver’s license, etc.)

• Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit (for flights outside the US)

Front: What aircraft documents are required for flight? ("ARROW")

Back:

• A - Airworthiness Certificate

• R - Registration Certificate

• R - Radio Station License (for flights outside the US)

• O - Operating Limitations & Information (in AFM)

• W - Weight & Balance Data (aircraft specific)
  (§21.5, §91.103, §91.9, §91.203, ICAO Article 29)

Front: What maintenance inspections are required for IFR flight? ("AVIATES")

Back:

• A - Airworthiness Directive (AD) required inspections (§39)

• V - VOR check every 30 days (IFR only; §91.171)

• I - Inspections (§91.409):

  • Annual inspection – every 12 calendar months (all aircraft)

  • 100-hour inspection (if carrying passengers for hire or providing instruction in provided aircraft)

  • 100-hour limit can be exceeded by 10 hours if en route to maintenance

  • Annual inspection can replace 100-hour if completed within 100 hours of time-in-service

  • Progressive inspection schedule may replace annual/100-hour if FAA-approved

• A - Altimeter, altitude reporting, and static system – every 24 months (IFR in controlled airspace; §91.411)

• T - Transponder – every 24 months (§91.413)

• E - ELT (§91.207):

  • Inspected every 12 calendar months

  • Battery replaced after 1+ hour of use or 50% of useful life expired

• S - Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) required inspections

Would you like any refinements or additional flashcards?

Here are additional flashcards based on your new content:

Front: What is included in a passenger briefing? ("SAFETY")

Back:

• S - Seat belts (fastened for taxi, takeoff, landing), shoulder harness (for takeoff, landing), seat position locked

• A - Air vents location & operation, environmental controls, action in case of discomfort

• F - Fire extinguisher (location and operation)

• E - Exit doors (securing & opening), emergency evacuation plan, survival kit (location & contents)

• T - Traffic (scanning, spotting, notifying pilot), talking (sterile flight deck expectations)

• Y - Your questions? Speak up!

Front: What is included in a taxi briefing? ("ARCH")

Back:

• A - Assigned/planned runway

• R - Route

• C - Crossings and hold short instructions

• H - Hot spots & hazards (e.g., NOTAMs, closed taxiways/runways, surface conditions)

Front: What is included in a takeoff briefing? ("DEPARTS")

Back:

• D - Departure review (takeoff type, initial heading, first fix & course, clearance readout)

• E - Establish expectations (flying pilot, PIC, positive transfer of controls)

• P - Plan/special considerations (weather, visibility, terrain, unfamiliar field, MELs)

• A - Alternate (takeoff alternate, if needed, or return plan)

• R - Runway conditions and length

• T - Trouble/tactics (rejected takeoff, engine failure)

• S - Speak up! Questions/concerns?

Here are additional flashcards based on your latest content:

Front: What preflight information is required for IFR? ("NW KRAFT")

Back:

• N - NOTAMs

• W - Weather reports and forecasts

• K - Known traffic delays as advised by ATC

• R - Runway length of intended use

• A - Alternatives if flight cannot be completed as planned

• F - Fuel requirements

• T - Takeoff and landing performance data

Front: What are the IFR flight plan requirements?

Back:

• No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR without:

  • Filing an IFR flight plan

  • Receiving an ATC clearance (§91.173)

• Taking off into IMC in uncontrolled airspace (Class G) without a clearance may be considered careless or reckless (§91.13)

Front: How can an IFR flight plan be filed?

Back:

• FSS (Phone: 1-800-WX-BRIEF, Radio: GCO/RCO, In person)

• Online (Leido: www.1800wxbrief.com, Garmin: www.fltplan.com)

• EFB Apps (e.g., ForeFlight)

• ATC (Radio or phone)

  • Pop-up IFR clearances allow transition from VFR to IFR but are subject to ATC workload

Front: When must an IFR flight plan be filed?

Back:

• At least 30 minutes prior to departure

• Non-scheduled flights above FL230 should be filed at least 4 hours before departure (AIM 5-1-6)

Front: When can an IFR flight plan be canceled?

Back:

• Towered airports – Canceled automatically upon landing

• Non-towered airports – Pilot must contact ATC/FSS to cancel

• In-flight – Can cancel if out of IMC and Class A airspace (AIM 5-1-15)

Front: What is the 1-2-3 Rule for determining if a destination alternate is required?

Back:
An alternate is not required if:

• An instrument approach is published and available

• From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:

  • Ceiling is at least 2000’ above airport elevation

  • Visibility is at least 3 SM

Front: What are the alternate airport minimum weather conditions?

Back:

• Precision approach – 600 ft ceiling & 2 SM visibility

• Non-precision approach – 800 ft ceiling & 2 SM visibility

• No instrument approach – Must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing under VFR

Front: What are the IFR minimum fuel requirements (§91.167)?

Back:
Sufficient fuel to fly:

1. From departure to destination

2. From destination to most distant alternate (if required)

3. 45 minutes of cruise fuel remaining

Front: How do GPS capabilities affect alternate filing?

Back:

• Non-WAAS GPS – Can base flight plan on GPS approach at either destination OR alternate, but not both

• WAAS without baro-VNAV – May use LNAV or circling minimums at alternate

• WAAS with baro-VNAV – May use LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 (Special Authorization required)

Front: What are the IFR cruising altitudes in uncontrolled airspace below FL290?

Back:

• 0°-179° magnetic course → ODD thousands (e.g., 3,000’, 5,000’, 7,000’)

• 180°-359° magnetic course → EVEN thousands (e.g., 4,000’, 6,000’, 8,000’)

Front: What are the IFR cruising altitudes above FL290?

Back:

• Non-RVSM airspace:

  • 0°-179° → Flight Levels at 4,000’ intervals (FL290, FL330, FL370)

  • 180°-359° → Flight Levels at 4,000’ intervals (FL310, FL350, FL390)

• RVSM airspace (FL290-FL410):

  • 0°-179° → Odd FLs at 2,000’ intervals (FL290, FL310, FL330)

  • 180°-359° → Even FLs at 2,000’ intervals (FL300, FL320, FL340)

Here are more flashcards based on IFR takeoff minimums and departure procedures:

Front: What are the IFR takeoff minimums for Part 121, 125, 129, and 135 operations if no minimums are prescribed?

Back:

• 1-2 engine aircraft – 1 SM visibility (5000 RVR)

• More than 2 engines – ½ SM visibility (2400 RVR)

• Part 91 – No takeoff minimums mandated

Front: What are the standard IFR departure obstacle clearance requirements?

Back:

• Cross the departure end of the runway (DER) at least 35 ft AGL

• Reach 400 ft AGL before turning

• Climb at least 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM) or as published

Front: How can you convert FPNM to Feet Per Minute (FPM) for climb?

Back:
FPM = (FPNM) × (Groundspeed) / 60

Front: What are the two types of Departure Procedures (DPs)?

Back:

1. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)

   • Provides obstacle clearance only

   • Can be textual or graphical (labeled "(OBSTACLE)")

2. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

   • Provides obstacle clearance and reduces ATC/pilot workload

   • May include special radio failure procedures

   • Always published graphically

Front: What are the three types of Departure Procedures (DPs) based on navigation?

Back:

1. Non-RNAV DP – Uses ground-based navigation (VOR, DME, NDB)

2. RNAV DP – Requires RNAV 1 performance (labeled “RNAV” in the title)

3. RADAR DP – Uses ATC radar vectors, labeled “RADAR REQUIRED”

Front: Are pilots required to accept a SID?

Back:
No, pilots can avoid SIDs by stating “NO SIDs” in the flight plan remarks.

Front: What is a Diverse Departure?

Back:
A standard IFR departure that allows turns in any direction while maintaining obstacle clearance when no ODP is published.

Requirements:

• Cross DER at 35 ft AGL

• Climb to 400 ft AGL before turning

• Climb until reaching minimum IFR altitude

Front: When is an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) developed?

Back:
When an airport’s Diverse Departure assessment finds that the standard climb gradient of 200 FPNM does not provide obstacle clearance.

Front: What is a Diverse Vector Area (DVA)?

Back:

• ATC can issue radar vectors instead of the pilot flying the ODP.

• Allows vectors below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA) while ensuring obstacle clearance.

Front: What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?

Back:

• A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC.

• Pilot performs climbing turns over the airport until reaching a published altitude.

• Avoids obstacles beyond 3 SM from DER.

• ATC must be advised before departure.

Here are flashcards based on the information provided for IFR departure clearances, STARs, and climb/descent clearances:

Front: What does "CRAFT" stand for in an IFR departure clearance?

Back:

• C - Clearance limit

• R - Route

• A - Altitude

• F - Frequency (for departure)

• T - Transponder code

Front: What does "clearance void time" mean in an IFR departure?

Back:
It is the time at which your clearance expires, and you may no longer take off after that time. You must notify ATC within 30 minutes after the void time if you did not depart.

Front: What does “Hold for release” mean in an IFR departure clearance?

Back:
It means you cannot take off until you are specifically released for departure by ATC.

Front: What is an "Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)"?

Back:
It is a runway release time given to aircraft under traffic management programs at busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier or later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

Front: What is an abbreviated departure clearance?

Back:
It is a clearance that states: “Cleared (...) as filed (...)”.

Front: What is a STAR (Standard Terminal Arrival Route)?

Back:

• An ATC-coded arrival procedure that connects the enroute structure to a point from which an approach to landing can be made.

• Can be based on conventional navaids or RNAV.

• Pilots can avoid a STAR by indicating “NO STARs” in the flight plan remarks.

Front: What are the benefits of using a STAR?

Back:

• Reduces pilot/controller workload

• Minimizes radio communications

• Simplifies clearance delivery

Front: How should pilots fly a STAR?

Back:

• Comply with lateral routing and published speed restrictions, unless otherwise instructed by ATC.

• Do not descend until authorized by ATC.

Front: What does “Climb via (the SID's name)” authorize?

Back:

• Compliance with lateral path, speed, and altitude restrictions of the SID.

• Allows the pilot to resume or join the SID after departure.

• Authorizes climbing to the next waypoint’s altitude as depicted on the SID.

Front: What does “Descend via (the STAR’s name)” authorize?

Back:

• Allows pilots to descend at their discretion to meet published restrictions and navigate laterally on the STAR.

• Pilots must comply with published or assigned altitude and speed restrictions.

Front: What happens when a “Climb/Descend via” clearance is issued?

Back:

• Speed restrictions previously assigned are deleted, but pilots must still comply with published speed restrictions in the procedure.

Front: What is the meaning of "Expect" in reference to altitudes or flight levels?

Back:
It is not a clearance, and it is used for planning purposes only. Pilots cannot descend to an “expect” altitude without additional clearance from ATC.

Front: What does "Maintain (altitude)" mean in an IFR clearance?

Back:
It is normally preceded by the phrase “climb and” or “descend and,” meaning the pilot should begin climbing or descending to the assigned altitude immediately after receiving the clearance.

Front: What does “Cross (fix) at (altitude)” mean?

Back:
It means to start climb/descent at pilot discretion and comply with the crossing altitude restriction at a specified fix.

Here are some flashcards based on your latest information about cruise clearance and IFR altitudes:

Front: What is a cruise clearance in IFR operations?

Back:
A cruise clearance allocates a block of airspace to the flight, starting at the minimum IFR altitude and extending to the altitude specified in the clearance. Within this block, the pilot is free to climb and descend. However, once descending and reporting leaving an altitude, returning to it requires additional ATC clearance. A cruise clearance also allows starting an approach without receiving a separate "cleared for approach" clearance.

Front: What are the minimum IFR altitudes in mountainous and non-mountainous areas?

Back:

• Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

• Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

Front: What does DA/H mean in IFR altitudes?

Back:

• DA: Decision Altitude, the altitude (MSL) on a vertically guided instrument approach (ILS, LNAV/VNAV, LPV) where the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around.

• H: Decision Height, the height above the runway threshold for a non-precision approach.

Front: What is the MAA (Maximum Authorized Altitude)?

Back:
It is the maximum altitude a pilot can fly under IFR in a specific airspace. Annotated on IFR charts (e.g., MAA-17000 for 17,000 ft).

Front: What is the MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude)?

Back:
The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an aircraft must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA.

Front: What is the MDA/H (Minimum Descent Altitude / Height)?

Back:

• MDA: The lowest altitude (MSL) a pilot can descend to on a non-precision approach until visual references are acquired for landing.

• H: Minimum Descent Height, similar to MDA but for approaches with a height above the runway threshold.

Front: What is the MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude)?

Back:
The lowest altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. A MEA gap indicates a loss of navigational coverage, marked as "MEA GAP" on charts.

Front: What is the MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)?

Back:
The lowest altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways or off-airway routes that meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage within 22 NM of a VOR.

Front: What is the MORA (Minimum Off Route Altitude)?

Back:

• Route MORA: Provides obstruction clearance within 10 NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10 NM radius at the ends of airways.

• Grid MORA: Provides obstruction clearance within a latitude/longitude grid block.

Front: What is the MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude)?

Back:
The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection with a radio navigational aid (NAVAID) can be reliably determined.

Front: What is the MTA (Minimum Turning Altitude)?

Back:
The lowest altitude at certain fixes that provides both vertical and lateral obstacle clearance during turns.

Front: What is the MVA (Minimum Vectoring Altitude)?

Back:
The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft can be vectored by ATC radar, except for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than other minimum altitudes like MEAs or MOCAs.

Front: What is the OROCA (Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude)?

Back:
It provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous areas and a 2,000 ft buffer in mountainous areas. OROCA does not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

Here are some flashcards summarizing the key points about gyroscopic and pitot-static instruments:

Front: What are the two principles of a gyroscope?

Back:

1. Rigidity in space

2. Precession

Front: How does the Attitude Indicator (AI) operate?

Back:
The AI operates on the principle of rigidity in space, providing bank and pitch information. It may have a tumble limit and is typically vacuum-driven in GA aircraft, though some may be electrically powered. It should show correct attitude within 5 minutes of starting the engine. The AI can have small errors, such as acceleration causing a slight pitch-up and deceleration causing a pitch-down.

Front: How does the Heading Indicator (HI) work?

Back:
The HI operates on rigidity in space and shows changes in heading. It must be calibrated with a magnetic compass to indicate correctly. Some HIs are slaved to a magnetic heading source like a flux gate and sync automatically. It is usually powered by the vacuum system in GA aircraft.

Front: What do Turn Indicators show?

Back:

• Turn coordinators show both rate-of-turn and rate-of-roll, operating on the principle of precession.

• Turn-and-slip indicators show only the rate-of-turn.

Front: How does the Altimeter work?

Back:
The altimeter is an aneroid barometer that shows height above a given pressure level. It uses a stack of sealed aneroid wafers that expand and contract with atmospheric pressure changes from the static port. The altimeter setting is adjusted using the "Kollsman Window" for the current pressure. In the US, below 18,000' MSL, the altimeter is set to the local pressure; above 18,000', it is set to the standard pressure of 29.92" Hg.

Front: What is the "High to Low - Watch out below" rule for altimeter settings?

Back:
When flying from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas, the altimeter may indicate a higher altitude than the actual one, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired. This is why the altimeter must be updated to the correct setting.

Front: What are the different types of altitude?

Back:

1. Indicated Altitude: Uncorrected altitude displayed when the altimeter is set to the local pressure.

2. Pressure Altitude: Altitude above the standard 29.92" Hg plane, used above 18,000' MSL.

3. Density Altitude: Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature, used for performance calculations.

4. True Altitude: Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).

5. Absolute Altitude: Height above airport elevation (QFE).

Front: How does the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) work?

Back:
The VSI indicates rate-of-climb in feet per minute (fpm) with a 6-9 second lag and shows rate trends immediately. It uses a diaphragm connected to the static source, and the area outside the diaphragm receives static pressure via a calibrated leak. The diaphragm’s movement, caused by static pressure changes, moves a mechanical linkage to display the climb rate.

Front: What is the Instantaneous VSI (IVSI)?

Back:
The IVSI solves the lag issue of the standard VSI by adding vertical accelerometers, allowing for more immediate feedback on rate-of-climb or descent.

Here are some flashcards summarizing the key points about Pitot-Static Instruments:

Front: How does the Airspeed Indicator (ASI) work?

Back:
The ASI measures the difference between the ram (impact) air pressure from the pitot tube and the ambient air pressure from the static port. This difference is called dynamic pressure and corresponds to airspeed. A diaphragm inside the instrument expands and contracts with the changes in dynamic pressure, converting this movement into airspeed shown on the display.

Front: What are the types of airspeed?

Back:

1. Indicated Airspeed (IAS): The speed shown on the airspeed indicator.

2. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS): IAS corrected for instrument and position errors.

3. Equivalent Airspeed (EAS): CAS corrected for compressibility error.

4. True Airspeed (TAS): Actual speed through the air, derived from CAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

5. Mach Number: The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound.

6. Ground Speed: The actual speed over the ground, TAS corrected for wind conditions.

Front: What are the markings on the airspeed indicator?

Back:

• White Arc: Flap operating range (from Vs0 to Vfe).

• Green Arc: Normal operating range (from Vs1 to Vno).

• Yellow Arc: Caution range (fly only in smooth air with caution).

• Red Line: Never Exceed Speed (Vne).

Front: What are the key V-speeds?

Back:

• Va: Design maneuvering speed.

• Vs: Stall speed in clean configuration.

• Vs0: Stall speed in landing configuration.

• Vs1: Stall speed in a specific configuration.

• Vfe: Maximum flap extended speed.

• Vno: Maximum structural cruise speed.

• Vne: Never Exceed Speed.

• Vx: Best angle of climb.

• Vy: Best rate of climb.

Front: What happens during Static Port Blockage?

Back:

• Airspeed Indicator: Will only show the correct speed at the blockage altitude; higher altitudes cause it to read lower, lower altitudes cause it to read higher.

• Altimeter: Freezes at the altitude where it was blocked.

• VSI: Freezes at zero.
  To resolve, use an alternate static source or break the VSI window, but expect reverse VSI indications. Using an alternate static source will cause:

• Airspeed Indicator: To indicate faster than it should.

• Altimeter: To indicate higher than it should.

• VSI: May briefly show a climb.

Front: What happens during Pitot Tube Blockage?

Back:

• If the ram air inlet is clogged and the drain hole is open, the airspeed indicator drops to zero.

• If both the ram air inlet and drain hole are clogged, the airspeed indicator behaves like an altimeter and becomes unreliable.

• The VSI will read 0 fpm.

• In case of suspected pitot blockage, pitot heat can be used to melt any ice that may have formed.

Front: What is checked during a Generic Instrument Taxi Check?

Back:

• Magnetic Compass: Should swing freely and show correct headings.

• NAV & Comm: Set to the appropriate frequencies.

• GPS: Checked and set.

• EFIS Cockpits: Check PFD/MFD/EICAS for any messages or warnings.

• Airspeed Indicator: Should show 0 KIAS.

• Turn Coordinator: The ball should be centered, and the wings should be level when not turning. During turns, the ball will move opposite the direction of the turn.

• Attitude Indicator: Should show correct pitch and bank angles within ±5° within 5 minutes of engine start (if vacuum-driven).

• Heading Indicator: Set and shows correct heading.

• Altimeter: Set to the local altimeter setting or airport elevation, and should match surveyed elevation within ±75 feet.

Q: What does "DV MONA" stand for in relation to magnetic compass errors and limitations?
A:

• D: Deviation (caused by electrical/magnetic interference within the aircraft)

• V: Variation (difference between magnetic and true north)

• M: Magnetic dip (causes erratic compass behavior near poles)

• O: Oscillation (compass swinging due to turbulence)

• N: Northerly turning error (incorrect heading near north)

• A: Acceleration/Deceleration (false heading due to speed changes)

Flashcard 2: Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS)

Q: What is an Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)?
A: AHRS is a system that provides reliable attitude and heading data using solid-state technology (no moving parts). It uses sensors (gyros and accelerometers) to calculate attitude and heading.

Flashcard 3: Air Data Computers (ADC)

Q: What does an Air Data Computer (ADC) do?
A: An ADC replaces mechanical pitot-static instruments, receiving data from the pitot, static, and temperature ports. It computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Flashcard 4: Flight Director

Q: What is the function of a Flight Director?
A: The Flight Director computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying a selected heading, course, or vertical speed.

Flashcard 5: Flight Management System (FMS)

Q: What is the role of a Flight Management System (FMS)?
A: FMS receives inputs from various sensors (e.g., GPS, VOR/DME) and provides guidance to autopilot and flight director, while also selecting the best navigation source.

Flashcard 6: Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS)

Q: What is an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), also known as a "glass cockpit"?
A: EFIS uses digital displays to show flight data, including Primary Flight Displays (PFD) for critical data like attitude, airspeed, altitude, and Multi-Function Displays (MFD) for maps, weather, and systems.

Flashcard 7: Minimum Equipment Required for VFR Day ("A TOMATO FLAMES")

Q: What equipment is required for VFR day under "A TOMATO FLAMES"?
A:

• A: Altimeter

• T: Tachometer

• O: Oil temperature gauge

• M: Manifold pressure gauge

• A: Airspeed indicator

• T: Temperature gauge

• O: Oil pressure gauge

• F: Fuel quantity gauge

• L: Landing gear position lights

• A: Anticollision lights

• M: Magnetic compass

• E: ELT

• S: Safety belt/shoulder harness

Flashcard 8: Minimum Equipment Required for VFR Night ("FLAPS")

Q: What equipment is required for VFR night under "FLAPS"?
A:

• F: Fuses (spare set)

• L: Landing light (if for hire)

• A: Anticollision lights

• P: Position lights

• S: Source of electrical power (battery)

Flashcard 9: Special Equipment for Hire and Over Water

Q: What is required for flights over water and beyond glide distance from shore?
A:

• Flotation device: One for each occupant

• Pyrotechnic signaling device: At least one required

Flashcard 10: Minimum Equipment Required for IFR Day ("GRABCARD")

Q: What does "GRABCARD" stand for in IFR day equipment?
A:

• G: Generator/alternator

• R: Radios

• A: Adjustable sensitive altimeter

• B: Ball (slip-skid indicator)

• C: Clock (hours, minutes, seconds)

• A: Attitude indicator

• R: Rate-of-turn indicator

• D: Directional gyro

Flashcard 11: Operating with Inoperative Items (§91.213)

Q: What are the requirements for operating with inoperative items?
A:

• Inoperative equipment must be either removed or deactivated and placarded as “Inoperative.”

• The pilot or mechanic must ensure no hazard is caused by the inoperative item.

• Special flight permits may be required if the inoperative item affects safety.

Here are the key concepts from the provided text in flashcard format:

Flashcard 1: VOR Limitations

Q: What are the limitations of VOR?
A:

• Cone of confusion: The area near the VOR station where the signal is weak and unreliable.

• Reverse sensing: Occurs when the VOR is used incorrectly (e.g., when the aircraft is on the wrong side of the VOR).

• Line-of-sight requirement: VOR requires a clear line of sight between the aircraft and the station.

Flashcard 2: VOR Check Sign-off (§91.171)

Q: What does "D.E.P.S." stand for when performing a VOR check?
A:

• D: Date

• E: Error (bearing error)

• P: Place

• S: Signature

Flashcard 3: VOR Standard Service Volumes

Q: What are the standard service volumes for VOR?
A:

• Terminal (T): 25 NM at 1,000 ft

• Low (VL): 70 NM at 5,000 ft

• High (VH): 100 NM at 18,000 ft

• DME Low (DL): 130 NM at 18,000 ft

• DME High (DH): 130 NM at 45,000 ft

Flashcard 4: VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) Frequency Range

Q: What is the frequency range of VOR?
A: VOR operates in the frequency range of 108.0 to 117.95 MHz, excluding 108.10–111.95 MHz (reserved for localizer frequencies).

Flashcard 5: VOR Receiver Checks (§91.171)

Q: What are the requirements for VOR receiver checks?
A: Perform every 30 calendar days:

• VOT: ±4º

• Repair Station: ±4º

• VOR Ground Checkpoint: ±4º

• VOR Airborne Checkpoint: ±6º

• Dual VOR Cross-Check: ±4º

• Above Ground Landmark: ±6º

Flashcard 6: Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

Q: How does DME work and what are its limitations?
A:

• Frequency Range: 962-1213 MHz (UHF).

• DME calculates slant range distance based on signal reply time.

• Slant range error is negligible when more than 5 NM away from the station at 5,000 ft altitude.

Flashcard 7: Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)

Q: What is a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)?
A:

• NDB operates in the 190-535 kHz frequency range (including commercial AM radio stations).

• The aircraft's Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) points towards the NDB.

• Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing.

Flashcard 8: Compass Locator

Q: What is a Compass Locator?
A: A low-powered NDB (at least 25 watts and 15 NM range) used at the OM or MM on ILS approaches.

Flashcard 9: NDB Service Volume Classes

Q: What are the NDB service volume classes?
A:

• Compass Locator: 15 NM

• Medium High (MH): 25 NM

• High (H): 50 NM (or less, as specified)

• High High (HH): 75 NM

Q: What are the lowest visibility and decision heights (DH) for ILS Categories?
A:

• CAT I: Visibility 2,400' or 1,800', DH 200'

• CAT II: Visibility 1,200', DH 100'

• CAT IIIa: Visibility >700', DH <100' or no DH

• CAT IIIb: Visibility 150'-700', DH <50' or no DH

• CAT IIIc: Visibility 0', No DH

Flashcard 3: Marker Beacons

Q: What are the types and functions of Marker Beacons in ILS approaches?
A:

• Outer Marker: 4-7 miles out, indicates the point where the aircraft should intercept the glide slope. Blue.

• Middle Marker: ~3,500 ft from the runway, marks the point where the glide slope meets decision height. Amber.

• Inner Marker: Between MM and runway, indicates the point where glide slope meets DH on CAT II approaches. White.

• Back Course Marker: For selected back course approaches, not part of the ILS. White.

Flashcard 4: Glide Slope

Q: What is the Glide Slope and its key details?
A:

• Provides vertical course guidance.

• Frequencies: 329.3 to 335 MHz (UHF).

• Width: 1.4° (full deflection is 0.7° each side).

• Slope: Typically 3° descent.

• Range: Typically 10 NM.

• Errors: False glide slope above the normal glide slope.

Flashcard 5: Localizer

Q: What is the Localizer and its key characteristics?
A:

• Provides lateral course guidance.

• Frequencies: 108.1 to 111.95 MHz (odd tenths only).

• Width: Between 3°-6°, with 700 feet at the threshold.

• Coverage:

  • 35° to each side of the centerline for the first 10 NM.

  • 10° up to 18 NM from the antenna.

• Sensitivity: 4 times more sensitive than a VOR.

Flashcard 6: Instrument Landing System (ILS)

Q: What are the main components of the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
A:

• Localizer: Provides lateral guidance.

• Glide Slope: Provides vertical guidance.

• Marker Beacons: Indicate key points along the approach path.

• Approach Light System (ALS): Assists with visual transition to the runway.

Here are flashcards based on the GPS section of your provided study guide:

Flashcard 1: GPS Overview

Q: What is GPS, and how many satellites does it have?
A:

• GPS is a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the United States.

• It has a constellation of at least 24 satellites (with some spares) orbiting the Earth at 10,900 NM.

Flashcard 2: GPS Positioning

Q: How does a GPS receiver calculate the aircraft’s position?
A:

• The GPS receiver calculates the distance to a satellite based on the time lapse since the broadcast timestamp.

• Using multiple satellites, the receiver intersects spheres to determine the aircraft's geographical position.

• At least 3 satellites are needed for 2D position (latitude and longitude), and 4 satellites for 3D position (latitude, longitude, and altitude).

Flashcard 3: RAIM Function

Q: What is RAIM, and what does it require for fault detection?
A:

• RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) monitors the integrity of GPS signals.

• For fault detection, RAIM requires a minimum of 5 satellites or 4 satellites + baro-aided RAIM.

• To exclude a corrupt satellite, RAIM needs 6 satellites or 5 satellites + baro-aid.

Flashcard 4: GPS Database

Q: What types of navigational data are stored in the GPS database?
A:

• The database contains information such as:

  • Airports, navaids, routes, waypoints, and instrument procedures.

Flashcard 5: GPS vs VOR

Q: How does GPS CDI deflection differ from VOR CDI deflection?
A:

• GPS CDI deflection shows distance from the desired course.

• VOR CDI deflection shows the angular distance off course in degrees.

Flashcard 6: GPS as ADF/DME Substitute

Q: Can GPS substitute for ADF or DME?
A:

• Yes, GPS can substitute ADF or DME, except for ADF substitution on NDB approaches without a GPS overlay.

Flashcard 7: GPS NOTAMs and RAIM Prediction

Q: What should you check before flight regarding GPS?
A:

• GPS NOTAMs should be checked, and RAIM prediction should be used if available on your GPS receiver.

Flashcard 8: Differential GPS (DGPS)

Q: What is Differential GPS (DGPS) and how does it work?
A:

• DGPS improves GPS accuracy by measuring errors received at known locations and broadcasting corrections to supported GPS receivers.

Flashcard 9: Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS)

Q: What is SBAS, and which systems are part of it?
A:

• SBAS improves GPS accuracy by broadcasting error corrections.

  • WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) in the US

  • EGNOS in Europe.

• It helps with LPV, LNAV/VNAV, and non-precision LP approaches.

Flashcard 10: Ground-Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

Q: What is GBAS, and how does it differ from WAAS?
A:

• GBAS (formerly LAAS) improves GPS accuracy by broadcasting error corrections via VHF to enabled receivers.

• GBAS is more accurate than WAAS but covers a smaller area.

• It allows for Category I and above approaches to GLS DA minima.

Here are flashcards based on the RNP and Attitude Instrument Flying section of your provided study guide:

Flashcard 1: RNP Definition

Q: What is RNP?
A:

• RNP is a statement of navigation equipment and service performance.

• It is RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting.

Flashcard 2: RNP Approaches

Q: How are RNP approaches categorized in the United States?
A:

• Most U.S. RNP approaches are titled “RNAV (GPS)”.

• Approaches with “RNAV (RNP)” in the title are AR (Authorization Required), requiring special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft, and operation.

Flashcard 3: RNP Approach Minima and Equipment

Q: What minima and equipment are associated with RNP approaches?
A:

• GLS DA minima using GBAS (formerly LAAS).

• LP MDA or LPV DA minima require RNP achieved by WAAS.

• LNAV/VNAV DA requires VNAV-approved WAAS or BARO-VNAV systems.

• LNAV MDA requires a basic, unaugmented IFR-approved GPS.

Flashcard 4: RNAV, GNSS, GPS, PBN, and RNP Clarification

Q: What is the relationship between RNAV, GNSS, GPS, PBN, and RNP?
A:

• RNAV allows navigation between any two points without needing ground-based stations.

• GNSS is a satellite-based RNAV system (e.g., GPS, GLONASS, Galileo).

• PBN is a basis for navigation equipment standards.

• RNP is a specific performance-based standard for flight segments and aircraft capability.

Flashcard 5: RNP Standards

Q: What are the typical RNP standards for different flight segments?
A:

• Enroute: RNP 2.0 (2 NM accuracy 95% of the time)

• Terminal & Departure: RNP 1.0 (1 NM accuracy 95% of the time)

• Final Approach: RNP 0.3 (0.3 NM accuracy 95% of the time)

Flashcard 6: Advanced RNP (A-RNP)

Q: What is Advanced RNP (A-RNP)?
A:

• A higher RNP standard required for RNP AR approaches.

• Includes features like:

  • Radius-to-Fix (RF) legs

  • Scalable RNP, with values varying between 1.0 and 0.3 (or as low as 0.1).

  • Parallel offset flight path generation.

Flashcard 7: Attitude Instrument Flying – Control & Performance Method

Q: What is the Control & Performance method in attitude instrument flying?
A:

• Divides instruments into control and performance categories.

• First, set the power and attitude, then monitor performance and make adjustments.

  • Control instruments: Power (e.g., Tachometer, Manifold Pressure), Attitude (Attitude Indicator).

  • Performance instruments: Pitch (Altimeter, Airspeed, VSI), Bank (Heading Indicator, Turn Coordinator, Magnetic Compass).

Flashcard 8: Attitude Instrument Flying – Primary & Supporting Method

Q: What is the Primary & Supporting method in attitude instrument flying?
A:

• Divides instruments into categories: Pitch, Bank, and Power instruments.

  • Pitch: Attitude Indicator, Altimeter, Airspeed, VSI.

  • Bank: Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, Magnetic Compass, Turn Coordinator.

  • Power: Airspeed, Tachometer, Manifold Pressure.

• Primary instruments provide the most essential information, while supporting instruments supplement the primary ones.

Flashcard 9: Example of Primary & Supporting Instruments

Q: For a constant rate climb with a standard rate turn, which are the primary and secondary instruments?
A:

• Primary instruments:

  • Pitch: VSI

  • Bank: Turn Coordinator

  • Power: RPM / MP

• Secondary instruments:

  • Pitch: Airspeed, Attitude Indicator

  • Bank: Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, Magnetic Compass

  • Power: Airspeed Indicator

Flashcard 10: Common Errors in Attitude Instrument Flying

Q: What are some common errors in attitude instrument flying?
A:

• Fixation: Focusing too much on one instrument.

• Omission: Missing important instruments or information.

• Emphasis: Overvaluing certain instruments over others.

• Common errors also include cross-checking, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

Here are flashcards based on the Required Reports under IFR, Position Report Items, Holding Patterns, and Holding Entries sections from your study guide:

Flashcard 1: Required Reports Under IFR - "MARVELOUS VFR C500"

Q: What does the acronym "MARVELOUS VFR C500" stand for in terms of required reports under IFR?
A:

• Missed approach

• Airspeed ±10 knots / 5% change of filed TAS

• Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude)

• VFR on top when altitude change will be made

• ETA changed ±2 min (±3 min in NAT)

• Leaving a holding fix/point

• Outer marker or fix used in lieu of it

• Unforecasted weather

• Safety of flight information

• Vacating an altitude/flight level

• Final approach fix

• Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure

• Compulsory reporting points

• 500 - unable to climb/descent at 500 fpm

Note: These are required in non-radar environments or during ATC radar failure.

Flashcard 2: Position Report Items Required in Non-Radar Environment - "A PTA TEN R"

Q: What items are required in a position report in a non-radar environment?
A:

• Aircraft ID

• Position

• Time

• Altitude

• Type of flight plan

• ETA and name of next reporting fix

• Name of the next succeeding point along the route

• Remarks (pertinent information)

Flashcard 3: Holding Patterns – General Overview

Q: What is the purpose of holding patterns in IFR flight?
A:
ATC assigns holding instructions to delay or separate traffic for reasons like weather or airport closures.

Flashcard 4: Non-Charted Holding Clearance Items

Q: What items might be included in non-charted holding clearances?
A:

• Direction of hold from the fix (e.g., N, W, S, NE)

• Holding fix

• Radial, course, airway, or route on which to hold

• Leg length in miles or minutes (if DME or RNAV)

• Direction of turns (left or right)

• Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time

Flashcard 5: Charted Holding Clearance Items

Q: What items are included in charted holding clearances?
A:

• Holding fix

• Direction of hold from the fix (e.g., N, W, S, E)

• EFC time

Flashcard 6: Holding Pattern - Speed Reduction

Q: When should speed reduction begin before entering a holding pattern?
A:
Speed reduction should begin 3 minutes before reaching the hold fix.

Flashcard 7: Holding Turns - Bank Angle and Timing

Q: How should turns be made in a holding pattern?
A:

• 3º per second, or

• 30º bank angle, or

• 25º bank angle if using a flight director.
  (Whichever uses the least bank angle)

Flashcard 8: Holding Pattern Timing - Outbound Leg

Q: When should timing start on the outbound leg of a holding pattern?
A:

• Start timing outbound abeam or over the fix, whichever occurs later.

• If the abeam point can't be determined, start timing at the completion of the outbound turn.

Flashcard 9: Holding Pattern Timing - Inbound Leg

Q: How long should the inbound leg of a holding pattern take?
A:

• At or below 14,000’ MSL: 1 minute

• Above 14,000’ MSL: 1.5 minutes

• For DME/GPS holds: Fly the outbound leg to the specified distance from the fix/waypoint.

Flashcard 10: Holding Pattern Speed Restrictions

Q: What is the maximum airspeed allowed in a holding pattern at different altitudes?
A:

• 6,000’ or below: 200 knots

• 6,001 - 14,000’: 230 knots

• 14,001’ and above: 265 knots

• Air Force fields: 310 knots

• Navy Fields: 230 knots
  (Unless published otherwise)

Flashcard 11: Holding Entry Procedures

Q: What are the three holding entry procedures?
A:

• Direct: Upon crossing the fix, turn to follow the holding pattern.

• Parallel: Upon crossing the fix, turn to a heading parallel to the holding course outbound for 1 minute. Then turn into the hold pattern to intercept the inbound course.

• Teardrop: Upon crossing the fix, turn outbound to a heading 30º into the pattern. Fly for 1 minute, then turn in the direction of the hold turns to intercept the inbound course.

Flashcard 12: Report to ATC at the Holding Fix

Q: What should be reported to ATC when over the holding fix?
A:
“[Callsign] Over [place] [altitude] at [time]”

Here’s a set of flashcards based on the Clearance Limit, Altitude, Route, Approach Clearances, Lost Communications Procedures, and Procedure Turn from your study guide:

Flashcard 1: Clearance Limit

Q: What should you do when reaching the clearance limit, if no EFC is given?
A: At the clearance limit, proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach.

Flashcard 2: Altitude to Fly

Q: What is the highest altitude to fly when leaving the clearance limit?
A: The highest of the following:

• M – Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR

• E – Expected altitude (e.g., "Expect 5000 10 min after departure")

• A – Assigned altitude by ATC

Flashcard 3: Selecting the Route to Fly

Q: In the absence of an assigned route, how do you select the route?
A: Follow the order of AVEF:

• A – Assigned route

• V – Vectored route

• E – Last Expected route by ATC

• F – Filed route

Flashcard 4: Lost Communications Procedure - VFR Conditions

Q: What should you do if in VFR conditions during lost communications?
A: Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. Otherwise, follow the Lost Communications Procedure.

Flashcard 5: Approach Clearances - Descending to Next Segment

Q: When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment?
A: When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route.

Flashcard 6: Contact Approach

Q: What are the requirements for a Contact Approach?
A:

• Requested by the pilot (not ATC)

• Requires 1SM ground visibility and the pilot must remain clear of clouds

• Only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures

• The pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance.

Flashcard 7: Visual Approach

Q: What is required for a Visual Approach?
A:

• Initiated by either ATC or the pilot

• Requires at least 1,000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility

• The pilot must have the airport or traffic in sight

• The pilot is responsible for visual separation from traffic.

Flashcard 8: Missed Approach

Q: When should a missed approach be executed?
A:

• Arrival at MAP or DH with insufficient visual reference to the runway environment

• When a safe approach is not possible

• When instructed by ATC.

Flashcard 9: Procedure Turn Restrictions - "SHARP TT"

Q: When should a procedure turn NOT be flown?
A: When there is:

• Straight-in approach clearance

• Holding in lieu of a procedure turn

• A DME Arc

• Radar vectors to final

• PT not depicted on the chart

• Timed approach from a hold fix

• Teardrop course reversal.

Flashcard 10: Instrument Approaches - Precision vs Non-Precision

Q: What is the difference between precision and non-precision approaches?
A:

• Precision approaches: Provide lateral and vertical guidance to a DA (e.g., ILS, PAR, GBAS).

• Non-precision approaches: Provide only lateral guidance, flown to an MDA (e.g., VOR, RNAV/RNP, LOC).

Flashcard 11: Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV)

Q: What is an Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV)?
A: A precision-like approach, flown to a DA with lateral and vertical guidance, but does not meet precision approach standards (e.g., LNAV/VNAV, LPV minima).

Flashcard 12: Procedure Turn (PT) - General Overview

Q: What is a Procedure Turn (PT) and what are its key characteristics?
A:

• A maneuver that enables a course reversal, a descent from the IAF, and inbound course interception.

• Max speed: 200 kts

• Must remain within the charted distance and comply with published altitudes for obstacle clearance.

• The shape of the maneuver is mandatory if a teardrop or holding-in-lieu-of-a-PT is published.

Flashcard 13: Teardrop Procedure in Lieu of PT

Q: When a teardrop procedure is published in lieu of a PT, what happens?
A:

• If there is no Intermediate Fix (IF), the intermediate segment begins 10 miles prior to the final approach fix.

• If the nav facility is located on the airport, the final approach starts at the completion of the teardrop turn, but the final approach segment begins 10 miles from the facility.

Flashcard 14: Procedure Turn (PT) Restrictions

Q: When is a Procedure Turn (PT) mandatory?
A:

• When depicted on the approach chart

• When holding-in-lieu-of-PT is depicted

• When receiving radar vectors to final or conducting a timed approach from a holding fix, PT is not allowed.

Here’s a summary and breakdown of the concepts you provided related to descending below the MDA/DA and the associated procedures:

Descending Below MDA/DA (§91.175)

You can descend below the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) or Decision Altitude (DA) only if the following conditions are met:

1. Position for Descent:
   The aircraft must be in a position that allows a descent to a landing on the intended runway at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
   
   

2. Visibility Requirements:
   The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) must be equal to or greater than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.
   
   

3. Visual Reference Requirements:
   The pilot must have at least one of the following visual references for the runway distinctly visible and identifiable (except for Category II and Category III approaches):
   
   

   • Approach lights (but not below 100 feet above touchdown unless red bars are visible)

   • Threshold

   • Threshold markings

   • Threshold lights

   • Runway end identifier lights

   • Visual glideslope indicator

   • Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings

   • Touchdown zone lights

   • Runway or runway markings

   • Runway lights

Visual Descent Point (VDP) - AIM 5-4-5

The Visual Descent Point (VDP) is the point from which you can start your descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point, provided adequate visual reference is established.

• Identified by: A ‘V’ symbol on the descent profile.
  
  

• Descending Before VDP: You must not descend below the MDA before reaching the VDP.
  
  

• If No VDP is Published: Fly the approach as if no VDP is published.
  
  

• How to Calculate VDP (if not published):
  
  

  • By distance: VDP (NM from threshold) = MDH / 300

    • Example: If MDH = 600 ft, the VDP would be 600 / 300 = 2 NM from the threshold.

  • By time: MDH / 10 = seconds to subtract from time between FAF and MAP.

    • Example: Given MDH = 500 ft, FAF to MAP = 4:00, subtract 50 seconds (500/10) from 4:00, resulting in a VDP at 3:10.

Vertical Descent Angle (VDA) - AIM 5-4-5

The Vertical Descent Angle (VDA) is a glide path from the Final Approach Fix (FAF) to the Touchdown Zone Height (TCH), published for non-precision approaches. It is usually around 3º.

• VDA does not guarantee obstacle clearance below the MDA in the visual segment.

• VDAs are advisory only: Pilots must still comply with all published altitudes on the approach chart.

Descent Rate and Glide Path Calculations

• Descent Rate:
  
  

  • Rate of descent is directly related to ground speed and the descent angle.

  • For a 3º glide path:
    VS (fpm) = Ground speed X 5.

    • Example: Ground speed = 120 knots → 120 x 5 = 600 fpm descent rate.

• Where to Start Descent (TOD):
  
  

  • For a 3º glide path:
    TOD (NM) = Altitude to lose (ft) / 300.

    • Example: To lose 800 ft → 800 / 300 = 2.67 NM. Start descent 2.67 NM from the runway threshold.

• For Steeper Glide Paths (e.g., 4º, 5º):
  
  

  • Descent Gradient (%) = tan(descent angle) X 100.

  • For a 4º descent angle: Descent gradient = 7%.

  • Rate of descent: VS (fpm) = Ground speed X Descent Gradient (%).

  • For a steep glide path with 380 knots GS at FL350:

    • VS = 380 X 7 = 2660 fpm.

    • TOD = 11000 / 400 = 27.5 NM.

    • Start descent 27.5 NM from the fix.

Example Calculations:

1. Cruising at FL350, ATC says “Cross LGA VOR at FL240”.
   
   

   • Altitude to lose = 35,000 - 24,000 = 11,000 ft

   • TOD = 11,000 / 300 = 36.67 NM.

   • Start descent 36.67 NM from the LGA VOR.

2. On approach to the runway from 800 ft MDA to the TCH, descent for 3º glide path:
   
   

   • TOD = 800 / 300 = 2.67 NM.

   • Start descent 2.67 NM from the runway threshold.

Here’s a concise summary of the airspace classifications and Basic VFR Weather Minimums under §91.155:

Class A Airspace (AIM 3-2-2)

• Altitude: 18,000' MSL to FL600.

• Location: Within the contiguous 48 states, Alaska, 12 NM from shorelines, and designated international airspace.

• Operations: IFR only unless authorized otherwise.

Class B Airspace (AIM 3-2-3, §91.131)

• Altitude: Typically from surface to 10,000' MSL.

• Characteristics: Surrounds the busiest airports (upside-down wedding cake shape).

• Communication: Requires two-way radio communication.

• Clearance: ATC clearance required to enter. VFR pilots need explicit clearance.

• Equipment: Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out within a 30 NM radius (Mode-C Veil).

• ATC Separation: Separates both VFR and IFR traffic.

Class C Airspace (AIM 3-2-4)

• Altitude: Typically from surface to 4,000' above airport height.

• Characteristics: Surrounds towered airports with moderate IFR operations.

• Communication: Requires two-way radio communication.

• Equipment: Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out.

• ATC Separation: ATC provides separation within the airspace.

Class D Airspace (AIM 3-2-5)

• Altitude: Surface to 2,500' above airport height.

• Characteristics: Typically a 4 NM radius cylinder around airports.

• Communication: Requires two-way radio communication.

Class E Airspace (AIM 3-2-6)

• Altitude: Not designated as A, B, C, or D. Extends from surface or higher.

• Characteristics: Various types of controlled airspace:

  • Surface area around airports.

  • Extensions to Class B, C, or D.

  • Transition areas from 700' or 1,200' AGL.

  • En-route areas (Federal Airways, RNAV routes).

• Equipment: Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out at or above 10,000' MSL (except below 2,500' AGL) and over the Gulf of Mexico (3,000' MSL).

Class G Airspace (AIM 3-3)

• Characteristics: Uncontrolled airspace not designated as A, B, C, D, or E.

• Visibility/Cloud Requirements (for VFR):

  • Below 1,200' AGL (Day): 1 SM, clear of clouds.

  • Below 1,200' AGL (Night): 3 SM visibility, 1,000' above, 500' below, and 2,000' horizontally from clouds.

  • Above 1,200' AGL but below 10,000' MSL (Day): 1 SM, 1,000' above, 500' below, 2,000' horizontal.

  • Above 1,200' AGL but below 10,000' MSL (Night): 3 SM, 1,000' above, 500' below, 2,000' horizontal.

  • At or above 10,000' MSL: 5 SM visibility, 1,000' above, 1,000' below, 1 SM horizontal.

Basic VFR Weather Minimums (§91.155):

• Class A: IFR only.

• Class B: 3 SM visibility, and remain clear of clouds.

• Class C: 3 SM visibility, and remain clear of clouds.

• Class D: 3 SM visibility, and remain clear of clouds.

• Class E:

  • Below 10,000' MSL: 3 SM visibility, and remain clear of clouds.

  • Above 10,000' MSL: 5 SM visibility, and 1,000' above, 1,000' below, 1 SM horizontal visibility.

• Class G:

  • Day (Below 1,200' AGL): 1 SM visibility, clear of clouds.

  • Night (Below 1,200' AGL): 3 SM visibility, 1,000' above, 500' below, and 2,000' horizontal from clouds.

  • Above 1,200' AGL but below 10,000' MSL:

    • Day: 1 SM visibility, 1,000' above, 500' below, 2,000' horizontal.

    • Night: 3 SM visibility, 1,000' above, 500' below, 2,000' horizontal.

This information provides an overview of the different types of airspace in the United States, along with the associated requirements for each airspace class. Here's a summary of each:

Class A (18,000' MSL to FL600)

• Controlled airspace for IFR traffic only, unless authorized.

• Covers the 48 contiguous states, Alaska, and extends up to 12 NM from shorelines and international airspace.

Class B (Surrounding busy airports)

• Controlled airspace from the surface to 10,000' MSL around the busiest airports.

• Requires ATC clearance to enter and two-way communication.

• Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out required within 30 NM of the airport.

Class C (Towered airports with significant IFR operations)

• Controlled airspace around towered airports with sufficient IFR traffic or passenger volume.

• Inner area: 5 NM radius, up to 4,000' above the airport height.

• Outer area: 10 NM radius, 1,200' to 4,000'.

• Requires two-way communication, Mode-C transponder, and ADS-B Out.

Class D (Controlled airspace around smaller airports)

• Controlled airspace from the surface to 2,500' above airport height.

• Typically shaped as a 4 NM radius.

• Requires two-way communication.

Class E (Controlled but not A, B, C, or D)

• Controlled airspace used for transitions and en-route areas.

• May be associated with airports, or extend from certain altitudes (e.g., 700' or 1,200' AGL).

• Requires Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out at altitudes above 10,000' MSL or in specific regions like the Gulf of Mexico.

Class G (Uncontrolled airspace)

• Uncontrolled airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

• VFR operations are allowed, with certain visibility and cloud separation requirements, depending on altitude and time of day.

  • Day: 1 SM, clear of clouds.

  • Night: 3 SM visibility, with specific cloud separation distances.

  • Above 10,000' MSL: 5 SM visibility with cloud clearance of 1,000' above, below, and 1 SM horizontal.

VFR Weather Minimums (§91.155)

• Basic VFR Minimums: The visibility and cloud separation requirements depend on the airspace class and altitude, ranging from 1 SM clear of clouds to 5 SM with specific cloud clearances.

Here are flashcards based on the information you provided for Special Use Airspace:

Flashcard 1: Q: What is a Prohibited Area?
A: Flight is prohibited unless permission is granted by the controlling agency. These areas are established for security or national welfare reasons (e.g., P-56A over the White House).

Flashcard 2: Q: What is a Restricted Area?
A: Flight is not completely prohibited but is subject to restrictions due to hazards like artillery firing or guided missiles. You must have permission to operate within a restricted area if it is active.

Flashcard 3: Q: What is a Warning Area?
A: Warning areas extend 3 NM outward from the U.S. coast and may contain hazardous activity. Their purpose is to warn nonparticipating aircraft of potential hazards.

Flashcard 4: Q: What is a Military Operating Area (MOA)?
A: MOAs separate military training activities from IFR traffic. Nonparticipating IFR aircraft may be cleared through an MOA if separation can be provided. Pilots should exercise caution and contact FSS for real-time information.

Flashcard 5: Q: What is an Alert Area?
A: Depicted on charts to inform pilots of high pilot training or unusual aerial activity. Pilots are responsible for collision avoidance when transitioning through these areas.

Flashcard 6: Q: What is a Controlled Firing Area (CFA)?
A: CFAs contain activities that could be hazardous but are suspended immediately when a potential aircraft threat is detected. CFAs are not charted since they don't require a change in flight path.

Flashcard 7: Q: What is a Military Training Route (MTR)?
A: MTRs are routes used for military training, typically below 10,000 ft at speeds over 250 knots. IFR MTRs (IR) are above 1,500' AGL, while VFR MTRs (VR) are below 1,500' AGL.

Flashcard 8: Q: What is an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)?
A: An ADIZ requires aircraft to be identified, located, and controlled for national security. To operate within an ADIZ, a transponder with altitude encoding, two-way radio communication, and a flight plan are required.

Flashcard 9: Q: What is a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)?
A: TFRs are defined in FDC NOTAMs to restrict flight for various reasons, such as protecting people or property, ensuring safe environments for public events, or protecting public figures.

Flashcard 10: Q: What is a Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)?
A: An SFRA is a defined airspace where special air traffic rules apply. Operators must adhere to these rules unless authorized by ATC. An example is the Washington DC Metropolitan SFRA.

Here are flashcards based on the information you provided for Max Aircraft Airspeeds, Weather Information, and Weather Briefings:

Flashcard 1: Q: What is the maximum airspeed above 10,000' MSL?
A: Mach 1.0 (speed of sound) (§91.817).

Flashcard 2: Q: What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000' MSL?
A: 250 knots (§91.117).

Flashcard 3: Q: What is the maximum airspeed under Class B airspace or within a VFR corridor through Class B?
A: 200 knots (§91.117).

Flashcard 4: Q: What is the maximum airspeed at or below 2,500' within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace?
A: 200 knots (§91.117).

Flashcard 5: Q: When can an aircraft exceed the maximum airspeed limits?
A: If the aircraft's minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the max speed prescribed, it may be operated at the minimum speed (§91.117).

Flashcard 6: Q: What are the sources of weather information for pilots?
A:

• Flight Service Station (FSS)

• NOAA’s Aviation Weather Center Website

• Flight planning websites (e.g., 1800wxbrief.com, fltplan.com)

• EFB software (e.g., ForeFlight, Jeppesen FlightDeck Pro)

• FIS-B (Flight Information Services-Broadcast)

• ATIS, ASOS, AWOS

• ATC (ARTCC)

• Onboard weather radar and lightning detector

• XM Satellite weather service

• ACARS

Flashcard 7: Q: What are the types of weather briefings available?
A:

• Standard: Full briefing, including adverse conditions, forecasts, and NOTAMs.

• Abbreviated: Updates on previously received info.

• Outlook: For departures 6+ hours away.

• Inflight: Available in flight from FSS.

Flashcard 8: Q: What is an AIRMET?
A: An advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those requiring a SIGMET. It is valid for 6 hours and includes:

• AIRMET (T): Moderate turbulence, low-level wind shear.

• AIRMET (Z): Moderate icing, freezing levels.

• AIRMET (S): IFR conditions, mountain obscurations.

Flashcard 9: Q: What is a SIGMET?
A: An inflight advisory for weather hazardous to all types of aircraft, valid for up to 4 hours. It includes:

• Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms.

• Severe or extreme turbulence, CAT not associated with thunderstorms.

• Dust/sandstorms reducing visibility below 3 miles.

Flashcard 10: Q: What is a Convective SIGMET?
A: An inflight advisory for convective weather hazardous to all aircraft, valid for 2 hours, issued for:

• Severe thunderstorms (winds ≥50 knots, hail ≥3/4 inch).

• Tornadoes.

• Embedded thunderstorms of any intensity.

• A line of thunderstorms ≥60 miles long with at least 40% of it affected by thunderstorms.

Here are flashcards based on the Weather Products you provided:

Flashcard 1: Q: What is the criteria for a Convective SIGMET?
A:

• Severe thunderstorms (winds ≥50 knots, hail ≥3/4 inch).

• Tornadoes.

• Embedded thunderstorms of any intensity.

• A line of thunderstorms ≥60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of its length.

Flashcard 2: Q: What does a Convective SIGMET imply?
A: Severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear.

Flashcard 3: Q: What are International SIGMETs and when are they issued?
A:

• Issued outside the contiguous USA and follow ICAO standards.

• Issued for Alaska, Hawaii, Atlantic/Pacific Oceans, and Gulf of Mexico.

• Criteria:

  • Thunderstorms producing tornadoes or large hail.

  • Tropical cyclones.

  • Severe icing or turbulence.

  • Dust storms/sandstorms reducing visibility.

  • Volcanic ash.

Flashcard 4: Q: What is the difference between a PIREP and an Urgent PIREP?
A:

• PIREP (UA): Pilot weather report.

• Urgent PIREP (UUA): A pilot weather report indicating urgent weather conditions.

Flashcard 5: Q: What is a METAR?
A: Aviation routine weather show surface observations in a standard format, published every hour. Non-scheduled METARs (SPECI) are issued when there is a significant change in weather conditions.

Flashcard 6: Q: What is a TAF?
A: Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. A 24 or 30-hour weather forecast for a 5SM radius around a station, updated 4 times a day every 6 hours.

Flashcard 7: Q: What does a Surface Analysis Chart show?
A: Pressure systems, isobars, fronts, airmass boundaries, station information (wind, temperature, dew point, sky coverage, and precipitation). Issued every 3 hours.

Flashcard 8: Q: What is a Radar Summary Chart (SD)?
A: Shows precipitation type, intensity, coverage, movement, echoes, and maximum tops. Issued hourly.

Flashcard 9: Q: What is a Wind & Temperature Aloft forecast?
A: Issued 4 times daily, it provides winds and temperatures at various altitudes, up to FL240. The format is DDff±tt, where DD = wind direction, ff = wind speed, and tt = temperature.

Flashcard 10: Q: What does the Low Level Significant Weather Chart forecast?
A: Significant weather conditions for a 12-24 hour period from the surface to 400 mb level (24,000 ft), including IFR, MVFR, VFR, turbulence, and freezing levels. Issued 4 times a day.

Flashcard 11: Q: What does the Mid-Level Significant Weather Chart forecast?
A: Weather from 10,000’ MSL to FL450, including thunderstorms, jet streams, tropical cyclones, turbulence, icing, and volcanic ash. Issued 4 times daily.

Flashcard 12: Q: What is shown on the High-Level Significant Weather Chart?
A: Significant weather phenomena for FL250 to FL630, including thunderstorms, turbulence, jet streams, and volcanic eruptions. Issued 4 times a day.

Flashcard 13: Q: What is a Convective Outlook (AC)?
A: A 3-day forecast of convective activity, classified as marginal, slight, enhanced, moderate, or high risk. Issued 5 times a day for day 1, twice a day for day 2, and once a day for day 3.

Flashcard 14: Q: What is shown in visible weather satellite images?
A: Cloud coverage based on visible light reflection. Not useful for identifying cloud height.

Flashcard 15: Q: What is shown in infrared weather satellite images?
A: Cloud top temperature, where high clouds appear bright white, middle clouds are gray, and low clouds/fog are dark gray.

Flashcard 16: Q: What is the purpose of Water Vapor satellite images?
A: Shows areas of moist and dry air. Moist air is bright white, and dry air is black.

Flashcard 17: Q: What does Next Generation Weather Radar (NEXRAD) show?
A: Echo intensities, echo top heights, composite reflectivity, and 1-3 hour precipitation. It helps examine storm structure and intensity.

Flashcard 18: Q: What does the Ceiling & Visibility Chart show?
A: Shows ceiling based on surface observations, replacing the older weather depiction chart with the HEMS tool available online.

Flashcard 19: Q: What is the Graphical Turbulence Guidance (GTG) tool used for?
A: Shows a color-coded turbulence forecast based on aircraft category, altitude, and time. Available at aviationweather.gov.

Flashcard 1: Q: What are the three conditions required for the formation of thunderstorms?
A:

1. Sufficient water vapor (moisture).

2. An unstable temperature lapse rate.

3. An initial uplifting force (e.g., front passages, orographic lifting, heating from below).

Flashcard 2: Q: What are the three stages in the thunderstorm lifecycle?
A:

1. Cumulus: Lifting action begins, growth rate may exceed 3000 fpm.

2. Mature: Precipitation starts, updrafts exceed 6000 fpm, downdrafts exceed 2500 fpm.

3. Dissipating: Characterized by strong downdrafts, and the cell dies rapidly.

Flashcard 3: Q: What hazards are associated with thunderstorms?
A:

• Severe turbulence

• Lightning strikes and tornadoes

• Hailstones

• Heavy rain

• Strong updrafts / downdrafts

• Icing

• Limited visibility

• Wind shear

Flashcard 4: Q: What is fog?
A: A cloud that begins within 50 ft of the surface, occurring when the air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point or when the dew point is raised by added moisture.

Here are more flashcards based on Aeromedical Factors:

Flashcard 1: Q: What is hypoxia?
A: Hypoxia is the insufficient supply of oxygen to the body's cells. It can be classified into four types:

• Hypoxic hypoxia: Insufficient O2 supply to the body as a whole.

• Hypemic hypoxia: Inability of the blood to carry O2.

• Histotoxic hypoxia: Body cells can't effectively use O2.

• Stagnant hypoxia: Reduced blood flow due to heart problems or restricted circulation.

Flashcard 2: Q: What is hyperventilation, and how can it be treated?
A: Hyperventilation is when excessive CO2 is eliminated from the body by rapid breathing. Symptoms are similar to hypoxia. Treatment includes breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud.

Flashcard 3: Q: What is decompression sickness and how can it be prevented?
A: Decompression sickness occurs when inert gases, mainly nitrogen, are released rapidly from solution in body tissues due to low barometric pressure. To prevent it after SCUBA diving, wait at least 12 hours for flights up to 8000 ft and 24 hours for flights above 8000 ft or after diving that required a controlled ascent.

Flashcard 4: Q: What are the oxygen requirements for unpressurized cabins above certain altitudes?
A:

• Above 12,500 to 14,000 ft MSL: Flight crew must use supplemental O2 for more than 30 minutes.

• Above 14,000 ft MSL: Flight crew must use supplemental O2 for the entire flight.

• Above 15,000 ft MSL: All occupants must be provided with supplemental O2.

Flashcard 5: Q: What are the oxygen requirements for pressurized cabins?
A:

• Above FL250: At least 10 minutes of supplemental O2 for each occupant is required.

• Above FL350: One pilot must wear and use an O2 mask unless both pilots are at the controls with quick-donning masks and the aircraft is below FL410.

• If one pilot leaves the controls above FL350, the remaining pilot must wear an O2 mask.

Flashcard 6: Q: What causes middle ear & sinus blockage and how can it be relieved?
A: Blockages occur when allergies, colds, or sinus infections prevent pressure from equalizing in the middle ear and sinuses, causing pain and hearing issues. Relief can be achieved by performing the Valsalva Maneuver: pinch nostrils and gently blow air out through the nose.

Flashcard 7: Q: What are the three systems the body uses for spatial orientation?
A:

1. Vestibular System: Organs in the inner ear detect movement in 3 axes.

2. Somatosensory System: Nerves in skin, muscles, and joints help sense body position.

3. Visual System: Visual cues help the brain interpret spatial orientation.

Flashcard 8: Q: What are the vestibular illusions that pilots may experience?
A:

• The Leans: After leveling the wings from a prolonged turn, the pilot feels the aircraft is banked in the opposite direction.

• Coriolis Illusion: A head movement during a prolonged turn causes the fluid in the ear canal to move, giving the false sensation of turning or acceleration on a different axis.

• Graveyard Spiral: In a prolonged, coordinated turn, the pilot feels the aircraft is not turning. Leveling the wings may create the sensation of turning in the opposite direction, causing a spiral descent.

• Somatogravic Illusion: Rapid acceleration creates the sensation of a higher pitch angle, while deceleration causes the opposite illusion.

• Inversion Illusion: An abrupt change from climb to level flight can create the feeling of tumbling backward.

• Elevator Illusion: A sudden upward acceleration can create the feeling of climbing due to fluid movement in the inner ear.

Here are flashcards based on Visual and Optical Illusions, along with Coping Mechanisms for Spatial Disorientation:

Flashcard 1: Q: What is the False Horizon illusion?
A: The False Horizon illusion occurs when the pilot misidentifies the horizon line. It can be caused by sloping cloud formations, an obscured horizon, the aurora borealis, dark nights with scattered lights and stars, or the geometry of the ground.

Flashcard 2: Q: What is Autokinesis, and how does it affect a pilot?
A: Autokinesis is the illusion that a stationary point of light in a dark or featureless scene appears to move after staring at it for a prolonged period. This can cause a pilot to align the aircraft with the perceived moving light, potentially leading to loss of control.

Flashcard 3: Q: How does the Runway Width Illusion affect pilots during landing?
A: The Runway Width Illusion causes a pilot to perceive the aircraft’s altitude incorrectly during approach. A narrow runway may make the aircraft appear too high, while a wide runway may make it seem too low.

Flashcard 4: Q: What is the Runway and Terrain Slope Illusion?
A: The Runway and Terrain Slope Illusion occurs when an up-sloping terrain or runway causes the pilot to believe the aircraft is higher than it actually is, potentially leading to an incorrect descent rate.

Flashcard 5: Q: What is the Featureless Terrain Illusion?
A: Also known as the "black hole approach", this illusion occurs when flying over dark or featureless terrain (e.g., over water). It can make the aircraft seem higher than it actually is, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired.

Flashcard 6: Q: How does Water Refraction create illusions for pilots?
A: Water Refraction occurs when light refracts due to rain on the windshield, making the horizon appear lower and the aircraft appear higher. This can cause a pilot to fly lower than desired.

Flashcard 7: Q: What role does Haze play in visual illusions during an approach?
A: Haze can create the illusion that the runway is farther away or the aircraft is higher than it actually is, affecting the pilot’s perception during an approach.

Flashcard 8: Q: What effect does Fog have on a pilot’s perception during flight?
A: Flying into fog may cause the pilot to feel a nose-up motion due to the reduced visibility and altered visual references.

Flashcard 9: Q: How can Ground Lighting Illusion affect a pilot?
A:

• Lights along straight paths (e.g., road or train lights) can be mistaken for runway or approach lights.

• Bright runway and approach lights can make the runway appear closer than it actually is, especially in dark surroundings. This may lead the pilot to fly a higher approach than desired.

Flashcard 10: Q: What are some ways pilots can cope with spatial disorientation?
A:

1. Stay alert to the causes of illusions.

2. Understand preflight weather information.

3. Maintain instrument proficiency and seek training if needed.

4. Avoid flying into adverse weather or featureless areas unless instrument proficient.

5. Use reliable visual references during flight.

6. Avoid sudden head movements during critical phases.

7. Be physically and mentally prepared for reduced visibility, including proper rest, diet, and night adaptation.

8. Trust flight instruments and disregard sensory perceptions when necessary.

Here are some flashcards based on the provided IFR and VFR categories, aircraft approach categories, and other aviation-related details:

Flashcard 1: Q: What is the definition of IFR?
A: IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) is when the ceiling is less than 1,000’ AGL and/or visibility is less than 3 miles. LIFR is a sub-category of IFR.

Flashcard 2: Q: What defines VFR?
A: VFR (Visual Flight Rules) is when the ceiling is greater than or equal to 3,000’ AGL and visibility is greater than or equal to 5 SM. MVFR is a subcategory of VFR.

Flashcard 3: Q: What is LIFR and its weather characteristics?
A: LIFR (Low IFR) is a weather condition with a ceiling of less than 500’ and/or visibility of less than 1 SM. It is shown in magenta on weather products.

Flashcard 4: Q: What are the ceiling and visibility for IFR?
A: IFR conditions have a ceiling between 500’ and 1,000’ AGL and/or visibility between 1 SM and 3 SM. These conditions are marked in red on weather products.

Flashcard 5: Q: What defines MVFR?
A: MVFR (Marginal VFR) has a ceiling between 1,000’ and 3,000’ AGL and/or visibility between 3 and 5 SM. This is shown in blue on weather products.

Flashcard 6: Q: What is the weather condition for VFR?
A: VFR (Visual Flight Rules) conditions have a ceiling greater than 3,000’ AGL and visibility greater than 5 SM. These conditions are marked in green on weather products.

Flashcard 7: Q: What is Special VFR (SVFR)?
A: Special VFR (SVFR) allows operations under VFR with weather conditions lower than standard VFR minimums. Requires at least 1 SM visibility and the aircraft to remain clear of clouds. An Instrument rating and equipped aircraft are required for night SVFR.

Flashcard 8: Q: How are Aircraft Approach Categories identified?
A: Aircraft approach categories are based on the aircraft's Vso speed and are identified on FAA approach charts. Categories range from A (less than 90 knots) to E (greater than 165 knots).

Flashcard 9: Q: What is the Circling MDA for a Category A aircraft at an altitude of 1000 feet or less?
A: For Category A, the Circling MDA (MSL) is 1.3 NM for altitudes of 1000 feet or less.

Flashcard 10: Q: How is the Standard Rate Turn angle of bank calculated?
A: The Standard Rate Turn angle of bank is calculated as:
(KTAS/10)×1.5(KTAS / 10) \times 1.5
Example: 120 KTAS → (120/10)×1.5=18°(120 / 10) \times 1.5 = 18°.

Flashcard 11: Q: What do the transponder codes 7500, 7600, and 7700 represent?
A:

• 7500: Aircraft hijacking

• 7600: Radio failure

• 7700: Emergency

Flashcard 12: Q: How far is the distance off course when the VOR indicator shows one dot per NM?
A: The distance off course is 200 feet per dot per NM from the VOR.

Flashcard 13: Q: How do you calculate distance to a VOR station?
A: The distance to the VOR is calculated as:
(TAS×minutes between bearings)/degrees of BRG change(TAS \times \text{minutes between bearings}) / \text{degrees of BRG change}.

Flashcard 14: Q: How do you calculate the time to reach a VOR station?
A: The time to the station is calculated as:
Seconds of BRG change/degrees of BRG change\text{Seconds of BRG change} / \text{degrees of BRG change}.

Here are flashcards based on the terms and definitions from the IFR Quick-Review Study Guide you provided:

Flashcard 1: Q: What does FTD stand for in aviation?
A: FTD stands for Flight Training Device.

Flashcard 2: Q: What is GBAS?
A: GBAS stands for Ground Based Augmentation System (e.g., LAAS).

Flashcard 3: Q: What is the function of GLS?
A: GLS stands for GBAS Landing System, used for precision landings.

Flashcard 4: Q: What does GP stand for?
A: GP stands for Glide Path.

Flashcard 5: Q: What does HFO stand for in aviation weather?
A: HFO stands for Weather Forecast Office Honolulu.

Flashcard 6: Q: What is the HI?
A: HI stands for Heading Indicator.

Flashcard 7: Q: What is an IAF in aviation?
A: IAF stands for Initial Approach Fix.

Flashcard 8: Q: What is the purpose of ICAO?
A: ICAO stands for International Civil Aviation Organization, responsible for global aviation standards.

Flashcard 9: Q: What is an IF?
A: IF stands for Intermediate Fix.

Flashcard 10: Q: What is the definition of IFR?
A: IFR stands for Instrument Flight Rules, applicable when flying in low visibility and/or cloud cover.

Flashcard 11: Q: What does ILS stand for?
A: ILS stands for Instrument Landing System.

Flashcard 12: Q: What is the role of the IM?
A: IM stands for Inner Marker, a component of the ILS.

Flashcard 13: Q: What does IMC stand for?
A: IMC stands for Instrument Meteorological Conditions, meaning low visibility and clouds.

Flashcard 14: Q: What is an IPC?
A: IPC stands for Instrument Proficiency Check.

Flashcard 15: Q: What does KTAS represent?
A: KTAS stands for Knots True Airspeed.

Flashcard 16: Q: What does Kts represent?
A: Kts stands for Knots, a unit of speed (NM/hour).

Flashcard 17: Q: What is LAAS?
A: LAAS stands for Local Area Augmentation System, a system for improving GPS accuracy.

Flashcard 18: Q: What does LDA stand for?
A: LDA stands for Localizer Type Directional Aid.

Flashcard 19: Q: What is LIFR?
A: LIFR stands for Low IFR, a category of IFR with extremely low ceilings and visibility.

Flashcard 20: Q: What is LNAV?
A: LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation, a type of GPS-based navigation.

Flashcard 21: Q: What is the LOC?
A: LOC stands for Localizer, part of the ILS system for lateral guidance.

Flashcard 22: Q: What does LP represent?
A: LP stands for Localizer Performance approach, part of RNAV/RNP approaches.

Flashcard 23: Q: What is LPV?
A: LPV stands for Localizer Precision with Vertical Guidance approach, providing precision with vertical guidance.

Flashcard 24: Q: What does MAA stand for?
A: MAA stands for Maximum Authorized Altitude.

Flashcard 25: Q: What is MALSR?
A: MALSR stands for Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights.

Flashcard 26: Q: What is a MAP?
A: MAP stands for Missed Approach Point.

Flashcard 27: Q: What is MCA?
A: MCA stands for Minimum Crossing Altitude, the lowest altitude at which an aircraft can cross a fix.

Flashcard 28: Q: What is MDA?
A: MDA stands for Minimum Descent Altitude, the lowest altitude to which you can descend without visual reference.

Flashcard 29: Q: What is MDH?
A: MDH stands for Minimum Descent Height.

Flashcard 30: Q: What does MEA stand for?
A: MEA stands for Minimum Enroute Altitude, the lowest altitude for a specific route segment.

Flashcard 31: Q: What is MEL?
A: MEL stands for Minimum Equipment List, a list of equipment that can be inoperative for flight.

Flashcard 32: Q: What is an MFD?
A: MFD stands for Multi-Function Display.

Flashcard 33: Q: What is the purpose of MLS?
A: MLS stands for Microwave Landing System, a precision approach system.

Flashcard 34: Q: What does MM stand for?
A: MM stands for Middle Marker, part of the ILS.

Flashcard 35: Q: What is MOCA?
A: MOCA stands for Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude, the lowest altitude ensuring clearance from obstacles.

Flashcard 36: Q: What is MON?
A: MON stands for VOR Minimum Operational Network program.

Flashcard 37: Q: What is MORA?
A: MORA stands for Minimum Off Route Altitude (used in Jeppesen charts).

Flashcard 38: Q: What is MRA?
A: MRA stands for Minimum Reception Altitude, the lowest altitude at which navigation signals are reliable.

Flashcard 39: Q: What does MSL stand for?
A: MSL stands for Mean Sea Level, a reference for altitude measurements.

Flashcard 40: Q: What is MVFR?
A: MVFR stands for Marginal VFR, a category of VFR with marginal weather conditions.

Flashcard 41: Q: What is an NDB?
A: NDB stands for Non-Directional Beacon, a type of radio navigation aid.

Flashcard 42: Q: What is an AATD?
A: AATD stands for Advanced Aviation Training Device, used for flight training.

Flashcard 43: Q: What does AAWU stand for?
A: AAWU stands for Alaskan Aviation Weather Unit.

Flashcard 44: Q: What is an AC?
A: AC stands for Advisory Circular, guidance issued by the FAA.

Flashcard 45: Q: What are ACS?
A: ACS stands for Airman Certification Standards, a set of FAA standards for pilot certification.

Flashcard 46: Q: What is an AD?
A: AD stands for Airworthiness Directive, a regulation requiring corrective action on aircraft.

Flashcard 47: Q: What is an ADC?
A: ADC stands for Air Data Computer, which provides airspeed, altitude, and other flight data.

Flashcard 48: Q: What is ADM?
A: ADM stands for Aeronautical Decision Making, a process for making flight decisions.

Flashcard 49: Q: What does ADS-B stand for?
A: ADS-B stands for Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast, a system for tracking aircraft.

Flashcard 50: Q: What is an AFM?
A: AFM stands for Airplane Flight Manual, a manual containing the aircraft's operating procedures and limits.

Flashcard 51: Q: What does AGL mean?
A: AGL stands for Above Ground Level, a measurement of altitude above the earth's surface.

Flashcard 52: Q: What is AHRS?
A: AHRS stands for Attitude Heading Reference System, which provides aircraft orientation data.

Flashcard 53: Q: What is an AI?
A: AI stands for Attitude Indicator, a flight instrument showing the aircraft's orientation relative to the horizon.

Flashcard 54: Q: What does AIM stand for?
A: AIM stands for Aeronautical Information Manual, a publication containing aviation regulations and procedures.

Flashcard 55: Q: What is ALS?
A: ALS stands for Approach Light System, lighting used to aid in instrument approach.

Flashcard 56: Q: What is ALSF?
A: ALSF stands for Approach Light System with Sequence Flashing Lights (e.g., ALSF-1, ALSF-2).

Flashcard 57: Q: What is APV?
A: APV stands for Approach with Vertical Guidance.

Flashcard 58: Q: What does ARTCC stand for?
A: ARTCC stands for Air Route Traffic Control Center.

Flashcard 59: Q: What is ASI?
A: ASI stands for Airspeed Indicator, a flight instrument displaying the aircraft's speed.

Flashcard 60: Q: What is ASOS?
A: ASOS stands for Automated Surface Observation System, which provides weather observations at airports.

Flashcard 61: Q: What is ASR?
A: ASR stands for Approach Surveillance Radar, used to guide aircraft during approach.

Flashcard 62: Q: What does ATC stand for?
A: ATC stands for Air Traffic Control.

Flashcard 63: Q: What is an ATD?
A: ATD stands for Aviation Training Device.

Flashcard 64: Q: What is ATIS?
A: ATIS stands for Automatic Terminal Information Service, providing weather and airport information.

Flashcard 65: Q: What is AWC?
A: AWC stands for Aviation Weather Center.

Flashcard 66: Q: What does AWOS stand for?
A: AWOS stands for Automated Weather Observation System.

Flashcard 67: Q: What is BATD?
A: BATD stands for Basic Aviation Training Device.

Flashcard 68: Q: What does DA mean?
A: DA stands for Decision Altitude, the altitude at which a pilot must decide whether to continue or abort the approach.

Flashcard 69: Q: What is DH?
A: DH stands for Decision Height, the height at which a pilot must make a decision during an approach.

Flashcard 70: Q: What is DME?
A: DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment, used to determine the distance between the aircraft and a navigation beacon.

Flashcard 71: Q: What does DP stand for?
A: DP stands for Departure Procedure, a set of instructions for departing an airport.

Flashcard 72: Q: What does EDCT represent?
A: EDCT stands for Expect Departure Clearance Time, the time an aircraft is expected to depart.

Flashcard 73: Q: What is EFB?
A: EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag, a digital device used for storing flight information.

Flashcard 74: Q: What is ELT?
A: ELT stands for Emergency Locator Transmitter, used to help locate an aircraft in distress.

Flashcard 75: Q: What does ETA stand for?
A: ETA stands for Estimated Time of Arrival, the anticipated arrival time at a destination.

Flashcard 76: Q: What is FAA?
A: FAA stands for Federal Aviation Administration, the U.S. government agency responsible for regulating aviation.

Flashcard 77: Q: What is FAF?
A: FAF stands for Final Approach Fix, the point at which a final approach begins.

Flashcard 78: Q: What is the FCC?
A: FCC stands for Federal Communications Commission, the government body regulating communication frequencies.

Flashcard 79: Q: What is an FFS?
A: FFS stands for Full Flight Simulator, a device used for flight training.

Flashcard 80: Q: What is FIS-B?
A: FIS-B stands for Flight Information Services-Broadcast, a system for receiving in-flight weather information.

Flashcard 81: Q: What is FL?
A: FL stands for Flight Level, the altitude measured in hundreds of feet above sea level.

Here are some flashcards based on the terms from the IFR Quick-Review Study Guide:

Flashcard 1

• Term: VCOA

• Definition: Visual Climb Over Airport

Flashcard 2

• Term: VMC

• Definition: Visual Meteorological Conditions

Flashcard 3

• Term: VNAV

• Definition: Vertical Navigation

Flashcard 4

• Term: VOR

• Definition: VHF Omnidirectional Range

Flashcard 5

• Term: VORTAC

• Definition: VHF Omnidirectional Range Tactical Air Navigation (VOR + TACAN)

Flashcard 6

• Term: VS

• Definition: Vertical Speed

Flashcard 7

• Term: VSI

• Definition: Vertical Speed Indicator

Flashcard 8

• Term: WAAS

• Definition: Wide Area Augmentation System

Flashcard 9

• Term: WPC

• Definition: Weather Prediction Center

Flashcard 10

• Term: Wx

• Definition: Weather

Flashcard 11

• Term: Night (FAR §1.1)

• Definition: The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.

Flashcard 12

• Term: NHC

• Definition: National Hurricane Center

Flashcard 13

• Term: NMC

• Definition: National Meteorological Center

Flashcard 14

• Term: NOTAM

• Definition: Notice to Air Missions

Flashcard 15

• Term: ODALS

• Definition: Omni-Directional Approach Lighting System

Flashcard 16

• Term: ODP

• Definition: Obstacle Departure Procedure

Flashcard 17

• Term: OM

• Definition: Outer Marker

Flashcard 18

• Term: OPC

• Definition: Ocean Prediction Center

Flashcard 19

• Term: PAPI

• Definition: Precision Approach Path Indicator

Flashcard 20

• Term: PAR

• Definition: Precision Approach Radar

Flashcard 21

• Term: PFD

• Definition: Primary Flight Display

Flashcard 22

• Term: PIC

• Definition: Pilot-in-Command

Flashcard 23

• Term: PIREP

• Definition: Pilot Report

Flashcard 24

• Term: RAIM

• Definition: Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

Flashcard 25

• Term: RAIL

• Definition: Runway Alignment Indicator Lights

Flashcard 26

• Term: REIL

• Definition: Runway End Identifier Lights

Flashcard 27

• Term: RNAV

• Definition: Area Navigation

Flashcard 28

• Term: RVR

• Definition: Runway Visual Range

Flashcard 29

• Term: RVV

• Definition: Runway Visibility Value

Flashcard 30

• Term: RVSM

• Definition: Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

Flashcard 31

• Term: SBAS

• Definition: Satellite-based Augmentation System (e.g., WAAS, EGNOS)

Flashcard 32

• Term: SDF

• Definition: Simplified Directional Facility

Flashcard 33

• Term: SID

• Definition: Standard Instrument Departure

Flashcard 34

• Term: SFRA

• Definition: Special Flight Rules Area

Flashcard 35

• Term: STAR

• Definition: Standard Terminal Arrival

Flashcard 36

• Term: STC

• Definition: Supplemental Type Certificate

Flashcard 37

• Term: SVFR

• Definition: Special VFR

Flashcard 38

• Term: TCH

• Definition: Threshold Crossing Height

Flashcard 39

• Term: TDZ

• Definition: Touchdown Zone

Flashcard 40

• Term: TDZE

• Definition: Touchdown Zone Elevation

Flashcard 41

• Term: TDZL

• Definition: Touchdown Zone Lights

Flashcard 42

• Term: TIBS

• Definition: Telephone Information Briefing Service

Flashcard 43

• Term: TLS

• Definition: Transponder Landing System

Flashcard 44

• Term: TOC

• Definition: Top of Climb

Flashcard 45

• Term: TOD

• Definition: Top of Descent

Flashcard 46

• Term: TWEB

• Definition: Transcribed Weather Broadcast

Flashcard 47

• Term: UAT

• Definition: Universal Access Transceiver

Flashcard 48

• Term: VASI

• Definition: Visual Approach Slope Indicator

Flashcard 49

• Term: VDA

• Definition: Vertical Descent Angle

Flashcard 50

• Term: VDP

• Definition: Visual Descent Point

Flashcard 51

• Term: VFR

• Definition: Visual Flight Rules

Flashcard 52

• Term: VIP

• Definition: Video Integrator Processor